Problem:

99% of the Potential gametes (oocytes) are eliminated in the female, but not in the male prior to puberty?

required:

Question 1: How, when, and why does this occur?

Question 2: It was long thought that chromosomal aneuploidy or genetic defects/mutations are de-selected, screened, and eliminated during this loss in the female, but not in the male. Discuss the evidence that showed whether this hypothesis was accurate or inaccurate.

Question 3: How might physiological events in the female lead to the same degree of sperm loss for the male with each ejaculate?

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