Choose the best answer.

1. A substance naturally produced by certain molds and bacteria that inhibits growth or kills other microorganisms is defined as a ______________

A. toxin

B. germicide

C. antibiotic

D. antibacterial

E. all of the above are true

2. The compound known as ___________ was derived from arsenic and is classified medically as a _______________.

A. sulfanilamide, antibiotic

B. sulfanilamide, antibacterial

C. salvarsan, antibiotic

D. salvarsan, antibacterial

3. The difference between bacteriocidal and bacteriostatic drugs is that _______________

A. they are both inactivated by penicillinases

B. the bacteriocidal agents kill bacteria, while bacteriostatic agents stop the growth cycle

C. bacteriocidal agents are broad spectrum, while bacteriostatic agents are narrow spectrum

D. bacteriocidal agents work in the presence of resistant organisms, while bacteriostatic agents do not

E. Both B and D

4. The concept of selective toxicity relates to the therapeutic index of antibiotics in that ___________

A. antibiotics are considered to have good selective toxicity if they kill a wide variety of microbes and the therapeutic index is high

B. a high therapeutic index indicates that the antibiotic is more selectively toxic to microbes than to the host

C. selective toxicity and therapeutic index are unrelated

D. selective toxicity indicates that the antibiotic dose is different to be toxic to microbes than the host and, therefore, the therapeutic index is equal for both of these features.

5. The term half-life is associated with antibiotics, and other drugs, it means ___________.

A. the amount of time needed for the host to metabolize or breakdown one half of the antibiotic dosage given

B. the amount of time needed for the antibiotic to damage or destroy one half of the microbes causing the infection

C. the amount of time needed for one half of the dose to enter the host's circulation

D. the amount of time needed for the microbe count to reduce by a factor of one half

E. none of these are correct

6. Adverse effects and allergic responses to antibiotics differ in that _________

A. allergic responses are more severe than adverse effects

B. adverse effects may be lethal, while allergic responses are not

C. adverse effects do not include any skin problems

D. allergic responses are specifically due to the action of the host's immune system

E. allergic responses take longer to demonstrate themselves than adverse responses

7. Strong antibiotics, frequently broad spectrum agents, frequently cause diarrhea by _______

A. suppressing the growth of normal flora in the GI tract

B. permitting overgrowth of C. difficile

C. deactivating certain macromolecules in the diet

D. A & B

E. A, B & C

8. Cell wall synthesis inhibition is the means that certain important antibiotics work, these include all of the following except ______________.

A. penicillins

B. tetracyclines

C. cephalosporins

D. vancomycin

E. all of the above inhibit cell wall synthesis

9. Collectively drugs such as penicllins and cephalosporins are known as ______________

A. Broad spectrum agents

B. Beta lactam drugs

C. Mixed penetration drugs

D. Atypical agents

10. An enzyme that specifically targets the ring structure of penicillins is known as ________________

A. penicillinase

B. peptidoglycanase

C. methicillase

D. betalysase

11. An example of a cell wall antibiotic that is used in the presence of penicillinase producing strains of S. aureus is __________________

A. Amoxicillin

B. Ciprofloxacin

C. Erythromycin

D. Methicillin

E. Clindamycin

12. Augmentin is an example of a combination drug it contains _________________

A. Amoxicillin

B. Methicillin

C. Clavulonic Acid

D. A & B

E. A & C

13. The cephalosporins advantage over penicillins is that ______________

A. they are less likely to be deactivated by beta lactamases

B. they are cheaper to make

C. they are broader in spectrum

D. A & C

E. A, B & C

14. The category of aminoglycosides are the drugs of choice for _____________, but caution is required due to toxicity to the __________

A. anaerobes, liver

B. anthrax, lung

C. pseudomonas, kidney

D. streptococcus, GI tract

15. The agent in the family of macrolides that is the drug of choice for usage in penicillin allergic individuals is _______________

A. Clindamycin C. Amphotericin B

B. Erythromycin D. Vancomycin E. Vibramycin

16. A well known member of the family of flouroquinolones is __________

A. ciprofloxacin

B. zithromycin

C. biaxin

D. tobramycin

17. The combination of trimethoprim and sulfonamide drugs are classified as ______________________ agents

A. Cell wall

B. Protein syntheses inhibitors

C. Folate synthesis inhibitors

D. Cell Membrane

18. A particularly problematic microbe in the GI tract is characterized by having very limited susceptibility. It is often a cause of nosocomial infections. It is known as ________________

A. Methicillin Resistant Staph. Aureus

B. Cipro Resistant E. Coli

C. Vancomycin Resistant Enterococci

D. Vancomycin Intermediate Staph. Aureus

19. Another cause of significant nosocomial infections may be harbored in the nasal passages of health care workers. It also is known for its limited susceptibility to certain antibiotics. It is ______________.

A. Methicillin Resistant Staph. Aureus

B. Penicillin Resistant N. meningitides

C. Vancomycin Resistant Enterococci

D. Penicillin Resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae

20. Which antibiotic do we not use in pre-adolescent children?

A. Tetracycline

B. Augmentin

C. Ciprofloxacin

D. Zithromax

21. Which of these is the drug of choice for C. difficile?

A. Tetracycline

B. Metronidazole

C. Augmentin

D. Cephalexin

22. Which of these agents may be effective against MRSA infections

A. Penicillin

B. Ampicillin

C. Augmentin

D. Bactrim

23. Which of these agents is always ineffective against Gram Negative organisms

A. Vancomycin

B. Erythromycin

C. Gentamycin

D. Tetracycline

24. The most common side effect of antibiotic usage is ___________.

A. Rash

B. Fever

C. Sleep loss

D. GI distress

25. Acyclovir's are classified as what type of anti-viral?

A. Prevent uncoating

B. Protease inhibitors

C. Entry inhibitors

D. Nucleoside analogs

E. None of these is correct

26. What agent is used for exposure to TB (Tuberculosis)?

A. Isoniazid

B. Gentamycin

C. Clindamycin

D. Marcaine

E. None of these are used for this

27. Treatment for tuberculosis with antibiotics usually lasts for _______________.

A. 1 month

B. 3 months

C. 6 months

D. 9-12 months

28. What agent would be used, most likely, for a protozoan infection from contaminated well water?

A. Ciprofloxacin

B. Metronidazole

C. Cephalexin

D. Azithromycin

E. None of these is the correct choice

29. Primaquine and /or mefloquine are used to treat what disease?

A. Tuberculosis

B. Pediculosis

C. Amoebic Dysentery

D. Malaria

E. Influenza

30. Tamiflu is classified as what type of anti-viral?

A. Protease inhibitor

B. Neuraminidase inhibitor

C. Hemagluttinin inhibitor

D. Nucleoside Analog

31. Endotoxins are most frequently associated with __________________

A. A streptococcal throat infection that leads to rheumatic fever

B. A streptococcal skin infection that leads to kidney damage

C. An E. Coli infection of the bladder and kidney that leads to organ damage

D. A Staphylococcal food poisoning infection

E. A severe case of viral gastroenteritis

32. The spread of influenza, from someone coughing next to you in class, would be classified as ________________

A. direct, personal

B. direct, respiratory

C. indirect, personal

D. indirect respiratory

33. Hepatitis A, such as with the outbreak associated with Chi Chi's locally, contaminated food, would be classified as ______________

A. Indirect, food or water supply

B. Indirect, fomites

C. Direct, food or water supply

D. Direct, fomites

34. A good definition of endemic would be ___________________

A. a disease that is consistently prevalent in a given geographic area

B. a disease that is under control in a given geographic area

C. a disease that is likely to reach epidemic proportions over time

D. a disease that occurs in a geographic area, but does not pose a health hazard

35. Which one of these normal flora are unable to cause disease, if given the opportunity?

A. Staphylococcus epidermis

B. Enterococcus faecalis

C. Clostridium difficile

D. E. coli

E. All of these may cause disease

36. Which of these is a symptom, as per the powerpoint presentation?

A. fever

B. bleeding

C. rash

D. nausea

E. vomiting

37. Which of the following is an example of a secondary infection, as per the lecture?

A. food poisoning with E. coli

B. pneumonia in an immuno-suppressed HIV+ patient

C. Streptococcal throat infection with Rheumatic fever

D. Tetanus infection following trauma

E. These are all primary infections

38. An organism that is able to cause infection and damage rapidly with a small initial exposure would be classified as ______________.

A. pathogenic

B. opportunistic

C. virulent

D. labile

E. pandemic

39. A patient suffering with evidence of widespread infection throughout the body which may include both effects from the organism and its products is frequently termed as a _______________.

A. septicemia

B. bacteremia

C. toxemia

D. disseminated infection

E. generalized infection

40. Which one of the following organisms, as noted in lecture, does not fulfill Koch's postulates.

A. M. tuberculosis (TB)

B. T. pallidum (Syphillis)

C. B. anthracis (anthrax)

D. M. leprae (leprosy)

E. S. aureus (Staphylococcus)

41. During invasion what is the most powerful barrier to infection for most infectious diseases?

A. mucous membranes

B. skin

C. phagocytosis

D. T-cells

E. B-cells

42. An interesting aspect of infections is that the damage they do to particular systems, such as what occurs with influenza in the lungs or C. difficile in the GI tract, is that ____________.

A. The damage is usually fatal

B. The damage facilitates the spread of the disease

C. The damage is irreversible

D. The damage only occurs in some members of the population.

43. Both botulism and tetanus exotoxins are categorized as __________, related to what systems they attack.

A. neurotoxins

B. hemotoxins

C. enterotoxins

D. None of these is correct

44. A-B toxins are noteworthy. The A component is associated with ____________, and the B component with __________________.

A. toxicity, cellular destruction

B. toxicity, cellular attachment

C. cellular attachment, toxicity

D. cellular lysis, toxicity

E. both A and B function as a unit to produce toxicity and attachment

45. Superantigens specifically activate large numbers of ______________ cells that lead to their damaging effects.

A. Helper T cells

B. Killer T cells

C. Antibody producing plasma cells

D. B cells

E. Both B and T cells

46. Bacteria may cause damage both directly and indirectly due to all of the following except ______________.

A. Cell membrane lysis of healthy cells

B. Inducing antigen-antibody complexes to form

C. Leading to antibodies attacking healthy tissue

D. Leading to inflammatory cells damaging healthy tissue

E. All of these are ways that bacteria cause damage

47. When studying diseases morbidity and mortality studies, these refer to ____________ and ______________, respectively.

A. death, percentage diseased

B. percentage diseased, death

C. death, life-threatening complications

D. life-threatening complications, death due to the disease

E. none of these is correct

48. The pathogens that are most difficult to eliminate are usually found in ______________

A. human reservoirs

B. arthropod reservoirs

C. non-human animal reservoirs

D. soil and water

49. Eating or drinking contaminated food,that has been prepared by someone with a communicable disease, is considered _______________.

A. a direct contact exposure

B. an indirect contact exposure

C. a form of droplet transmission

D. as highly infectious

E. none of these are accurate

50. The most frequent location, statistically, for nosocomial infections is the _________.

A. respiratory tract

B. skin

C. GI tract

D. Urinary tract

E. Surgical wounds