1. All blood cells in an adult human can trace their ancestry to which compartment within the body?

1. Thymus

2. Bone marrow

3. Lymph node

4. Peyer's patch

5. None of the above

1. A pluripotent stem cell can do which of the following?

   1. Differentiate into a finite number of different cell types

   2. Differentiate into any type of cell found in the adult

   3. Divide an infinite number of times

   4. All of the above

   5. None of the above

2. Which of the following is the pluripotent stem cell that gives rise to all blood cells?

   1. CLP (committed lymphoid precursors)

   2. CMP (committed myeloid precursors)

   3. CEP (committed erythroid precursors)

   4. HSC (hematopoetic stem cells)

   5. None of the above

3. From which of the following stem cells are NK cells derived?

   1. CLP

   2. CMP

   3. CEP

   4. BothAandB

   5. None of the above

4. From which of the following stem cells are platelets derived?

   1. CLP

   2. CMP

   3. CEP

   4. BothAandB

   5. None of the above

5. From which of the following stem cells are helper T cells (TH) derived?

   1. CLP

   2. CMP

   3. CEP

   4. BothAandB

   5. None of the above

1. From which of the following stem cells are monocytes derived?

   1. CLP

   2. CMP

   3. CEP

   4. BothAandB

   5. None of the above

2. Which lineage of immune cells constitutes the first line of defense against an infection?

   1. Lymphoid

   2. Erythroid

   3. Myeloid

   4. All of the above

   5. None of the above

3. Which of the following granulocytes contains histamine within its granules?

   1. Neutrophils

   2. Eosinophils

   3. Basophils

   4. BothBandC

   5. All of the above

4. Which of the following is NOT true about monocytes?

   A. They comprise between 5-10% of circulating leukocytes.
   B. They have the ability to differentiate into macrophages or dendritic cells.
   C. They can be subdivided into inflammatory monocytes and patrolling monocytes. D. They can give rise to platelets.
   E. All of the above are true.

5. In mammals, T-cell development occurs in the ____________, while B-cell development occurs predominantly in the ______________.

   1. thymus; bursa of Fabricius

   2. bone marrow; mesenteric lymph nodes

   3. bone marrow; thymus

   4. thymus; bone marrow

   5. None of the above

6. Contraction of which of the following types of muscles is responsible for propulsion of lymph through the lymphatic system?

   1. Cardiac

   2. Skeletal

   3. Smooth

   4. BothBandC

   5. None of the above

1. Nai?ve lymphocytes enter secondary lymphoid tissues via which of the following structures?

   1. Afferent lymphatics

   2. Efferent lymphatics

   3. HEVs

   4. Marginal sinus

   5. None of the above

2. Which of the following is NOT entirely a response of the innate immune system?

   1. Phagocytosis by macrophages

   2. Protection from infection by the skin

   3. Low pH in the stomach

   4. Antibody mediated complement activation

   5. Microbial cell lysis by defensin

3. Which of these characteristics are innate?

   1. Found in all multicellular plants and animals

   2. Receptors are encoded in the germline

   3. Recognize broad classes of pathogens

   4. Responds more quickly upon secondary exposure to pathogens

   5. A, B, and C

4. A mixture of S. aureus and the enteric bacteria E. coli was placed onto the skin of the fingertips of a volunteer. The volunteer immediately touched one of their inoculated fingertips to nutrient agar plate #1 and then waited 30 minutes and touched a different inoculated finger to nutrient agar plate #2. After incubating the plates overnight, what pattern of growth would you expect to see on the plates?

   1. Both E. coli and S. aureus grew on both plates.

   2. Plate #1 grew both, while plate #2 grew only S. aureus.

   3. Plate #1 grew both, while plate #2 grew only E. coli.

   4. Plate #1 grew only S. aureus, while plate #2 grew both.

   5. Plate #1 grew only E. coli, while plate #2 grew both.

5. Which of the following is the CORRECT relationship? _______________ on _____________ recognize _________________ on ____________________.

   1. PRRs; macrophages; PAMPs; pathogens

   2. PRRs; pathogens; PAMPs; macrophages

   3. PAMPs; macrophages; PRRs; pathogens

   4. PAMPs; neutrophils; PRR; pathogens

   5. PRRs; macrophages; PAMPs; neutrophils

1. Why are many opsonins multimeric?

   1. Because they are all derived from the same proto-opsonin

   2. Because they bind repeating structures on pathogen surfaces

   3. So that they can be regulated allosterically

   4. Because they have to crosslink receptors on phagocytes in order for phagocytosis to occur

   5. Because one subunit binds pathogen and the other has enzymatic activity

2. Which of the following are associated with damaged or dead cells?

   1. Lysophosphatidic acid

   2. Altered carbohydrates

   3. Low CD47

   4. Cell-surface annexin I

   5. All of the above

3. Which of the following would you predict to result from a mutation in TLR-4 that prevents binding to LPS?

   1. Increased susceptibility to infection with gram-positive bacteria

   2. Decreased susceptibility to septic shock

   3. Failure to develop from an embryo

   4. Tighter binding between bacteria and macrophages

   5. Increased phagocytosis

4. Which of the following is NOT usually induced in response to TLR signaling?

   A. TNF- B. IL-1 C. IL-8 D. IL-6 E. IL-4

5. Where would you MOST likely find a TLR that recognizes RNA?

   1. On the cell surface

   2. In the endosome/lysosome

   3. In the nucleus

   4. In the mitochondria

   5. In the endoplasmic reticulum

6. Which cytokine is known for its anti-viral properties?

   A. IL-2 B. IL-4 C. IFN- D. TNF- E. IL-1

1. What is the Latin word for pain?

   A. Rubor B. Calor C. Dolor D. Tumor E. Accio

2. C-reactive protein is a/an:

   1. chemokine.

   2. cytokine.

   3. acute phase response protein.

   4. surfactant.

   5. cell-adhesion molecule.

3. How do natural killer cells kill their targets?

   1. By lysing them

   2. By inducing inflammation

   3. By inducing apoptosis

   4. By causing them to leave the bloodstream and be trapped by the liver

   5. By coating them with opsonins

4. What types of cells are good targets for natural killer cells and why?

   1. Bacterial cells because they contain LPS

   2. Gram positive cells because they contain LTA

   3. Antigen presenting cells because they have high levels of costimulatory molecules

   4. Endothelial cells in inflamed tissues because they have high levels of adhesion molecules

   5. Virally infected cells because they have low levels of class I MHC

5. Predict the clinical outcome of a genetic defect in IRAK4, a protein required for the MyD88 pathway (involved in NF-kappB activation).

   1. Increased rates of cancer

   2. Increased rates of autoimmune disease

   3. Decreased muscle tone

   4. Increased rates of bacterial infection

   5. Increased TLR signaling

6. Which type of vaccine would MOST likely require an adjuvant?

   1. Killed bacteria

   2. Attenuated virus

   3. Inactivated virus

   4. Purified protein

   5. All of the above

1. Which of the following defenses is MOST likely to protect a plant from a microbial pathogen?

   1. Antibodies

   2. CTL

   3. Phagocytes

   4. Reactive-oxygen species

   5. CD4

2. Which of the following complement fixation pathways can be initiated by a soluble C3 convertase?

   1. Alternative

   2. Classical

   3. Lectin

   4. All of the above

   5. None of the above

3. Which of the following provides serine protease activity in the classical complement activation pathway?

   1. MASP-2

   2. C1r

   3. C1s

   4. BothBandC

   5. None of the above acts in the classical pathway.

4. Which of the following is the MOST potent anaphylatoxin produced during the complement cascade?

   A. C3a B. C3b C. C5a D. C5b E. Ba

5. To which of the following is MBL (mannose binding lectin) most structurally similar?

   1. C3b

   2. C1q

   3. Bb

   4. C5b

   5. None of the above

6. Which of the following is TRUE about the C5 convertase?

   1. C5 convertase can consist of the membrane-bound components C3b2Bb.

   2. C5 convertase cleaves C5 into C5a and C5b, with the b chain attached to the pathogen surface

      and the a chain dissociating away to serve as a potent proinflammatory chemotactic factor.

   3. C5 convertase is an important player in the production of the MAC.

   4. All of the above

   5. None of the above

1. Which of the following BEST explains the timing of the classical pathway of complement fixation, relative to the other pathways of complement fixation, against a pathogen in an individual who has never been exposed to said pathogen?

   1. No target for C1qrs exists on the surface of the pathogen in the earliest stages of the response to it.

   2. The chemical environment of the pathogen's surface favors the spontaneous activation of soluble C3 immediately upon exposure to the pathogen.

   3. C1qrs immediately recognizes carbohydrate antigens on the surface of the pathogen, allowing for rapid formation of the C4b2a C3 convertase.

   4. The pathogen expresses one or more factors on its surface that act as negative regulators of C3 convertase formation.

   5. None of the above

2. Which of the following can be directly activated as a soluble protein in the microenvironment surrounding a pathogenic cell, and is not part of the alternative pathway?

   1. C2

   2. C3

   3. Factor B

   4. Factor D

   5. C4

3. Which of the following acts as a protease that is required to generate (stabilize) the alternative pathway C3 convertase?

   1. C2

   2. C3

   3. C2a

   4. Factor D

   5. C4

4. Which of the following immunoglobulin isotypes is the MOST efficient at initiating a complement fixation cascade?

   1. IgG

   2. IgE

   3. IgM

   4. IgD

   5. None of the above

5. Addition of which of the following components to any C3 convertase leads to the formation of the C5 convertase?

   A. C3b B. C2a C. C4b D. C5b E. C3a

6. Which form of IgM is MOST readily recognized by C1q?

   1. Monomeric IgM

   2. Planar pentameric IgM

   3. "Staple-form" pentameric IgM

   4. All of the above are recognized equally well.

42. Which of the following acts as a positive regulator (not inhibitor) of complement fixation via stabilization of C3bBb?

A. DAF (CD55) B. Properdin

43. The MAC consists of a multimeric complex of which of the following proteins that, by their association, forms a pore in the surface of the attacked cell?

A. C3b B. C5b C. C6 D. C9 E. C4b

44. How does binding of complement-opsonized microbes to CR1 facilitate clearing of the microbe from the host?

1. Promotion of phagocytosis of opsonized microbes by leukocytes

2. Secretion of pro-inflammatory cytokines

3. Mediating phagocytosis of C3b-opsonized pathogen by B cells

4. All of the above occur as a result of CR1 binding of complement-opsonized microbes.

5. None of the above

45. Which of the following is NOT an effect of C3a and C5a binding their receptors on leukocytes?

1. Increased vascular permeability via induction of TNF-? and IL-6 secretion

2. Induction of degranulation by granulocytes

3. Increased smooth muscle contraction to aid in delivering immune cells and molecules to the site

   of infection

4. All of the above are effects of C3a and C5a binding their receptors.

5. None of the above is an effect of C3a and C5a binding their receptors.

46. Adaptive Immunity (involving specific B-cells/Plasma cell and T-cells) takes place outside of the secondary lymphoid tissues

A. True B. False

47. Peyer's patches constantly sample the lumen of the gut for antigens/pathogens, and transfer them to the mucosal area via...

A. M-cells B. T-cells C. Monocytes D. Mast cells E. tonsils

48. Lymph traveling through the lymphatics ultimately drains back into the blood via......

A. Subclavian veins B. Splenic arterial system.

49. Bony fish have a spleen and thymus, but do not have bone marrow and lymph nodes.

A. True B. False

50. The default mission for NK cells is to kill all cells, but do not because of activation vs. inhibition

signaling.
A. True B. False