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A function f:A->R is called Lipschitz if there exists a bound M>0 such that Absolute value of f(x)-f(y)/x-y <=M for all x, y belong to A. Geometrically speaking a function f is Lipschitz if there is a uniform bound on the magnitude of the slopes of lines drawn through any two points on the graph of f.

a- Show that if f:A->R is Lipschitz then it is uniformly continuous on A.

b- Is the converse statement true? Are all uniformly continuous functions necessarily Lipschitz?

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