Q1. Wave characteristics, such as frequency and amplitude, are inherently discrete.

a. true

b. false

Q2. The ____ standard divides frequency bands in the 5.2, 5.7, and 5.8 GHz ranges into 12 channels.

a. 802.11n

b. 802.11g

c. 802.11b

d. 802.11a

Q3. ____ represents bit values as specific wave amplitudes.

a. Frequency modulation

b. Polar modulation

c. Amplitude modulation

d. Phase modulation

Q4. Most local phone service is based on a channel-sharing strategy called ____.

a. packet switching

b. route switching

c. circuit switching

d. path switching

Q5. Square waves are the preferred method of transmitting digital data over short distances, such as on a system bus.

a. true

b. false

Q6. As bit transmission speed is increased, the duration of each bit in the signal, known as the ____, decreases.

a. bit time

b. overhead

c. block time

d. modulation time

Q7. Asynchronous transmission adds one or more ____ bits to the beginning of each message.

a. stop

b. end

c. parity

d. start

Q8. RARP converts IP addresses to physical network addresses.

a. true

b. false

Q9. The ____ model was originally intended to unite disparate network standards in a way that enabled any node connected to any type of network to communicate with any other node.

a. IPX/SPX

b. SNA

c. NetBIOS

d. TCP/IP

Q10. The OSI model predates the TCP/IP model by almost a decade.

a. true

b. false

Q11. A network for an entire campus is known as a(n) ____ and includes end nodes, LANs, zone networks, the campus backbone network, and central nodes.

a. metropolitan area network

b. wide area network

c. regional network

d. enterprise network

Q12. ____ is based on the 802.3z standard and the 802.3ab standard.

a. Wireless Ethernet

b. Standard Ethernet

c. Gigabit Ethernet

d. Megabit Ethernet

Q13. The VoIP user perceives ____ as periods of silence mixed with overlapped voice signals.

a. jitter

b. latency

c. fragmentation

d. overrun

Q14. A wireless ____ connects a wireless network to a wired network.

a. bridge

b. access point

c. router

d. hub

Q15. A tool suite that primarily supports application development based on specific analysis and design models is sometimes called a(n) ____ tool.

a. early-bound CASE

b. front-end CASE

c. back-end CASE

d. mid-tier CASE

Q16. A(n) ____ searches an object code file for external function calls.

a. compiler

b. parser

c. link editor

d. interpreter

Q17. A ____ is a request to execute a specific method and return a response.

a. conduit

b. message

c. path

d. function

Q18. A(n) ____ is a collection of automated support tools to speed development and testing.

a. integrated development environment

b. linker

c. graphical development environment

d. system development environment

Q19. A symbolic debugger uses the symbol table, memory map, and source code files to trace memory addresses to specific source code statements and variables.

a. true

b. false

Q20. Programming languages, program translation tools, and debugging tools address only the implementation discipline of the Unified Process.

a. true

b. false

Q21. ____ linking is performed during program loading or execution.

a. Dynamic

b. Static

c. Early

d. Objective

Q22. Each memory page in virtual memory management is called a ____.

a. page frame

b. sheet

c. bundle

d. page tear

Q23. The OS maintains a ____ and updates it each time a partition is allocated or freed.

a. memory use table

b. memory partition table

c. memory map table

d. memory control table

Q24. ____ occurs when memory partitions allocated to a single process or purpose are scattered throughout physical memory.

a. Swapping

b. Orphaning

c. Fragmentation

d. Garbage collection

Q25. Operating systems are organized internally into layers.

a. true

b. false

Q26. In explicit priority scheduling, the scheduler always dispatches the ready thread that has been waiting the longest.

a. true

b. false

Q27. ____ store information about page locations, allocated page frames, and secondary storage space.

a. Page tears

b. Page blocks

c. Page tables

d. Page addresses

Q28. Page location in the swap space can be computed by dividing the page number by the page size.

a. true

b. false

Q29. When a(n) ____ is performed, the FMS copies all files and directories for an entire storage volume.

a. full backup

b. incremental backup

c. differential backup

d. synthetic full backup

Q30. The most common example of multiple RAID levels layered to combine their best features is ____.

a. RAID 0

b. RAID 1

c. RAID 5

d. RAID 10

Q31. Each record in a data file is composed of multiple ____.

a. tuples

b. columns

c. fields

d. records

Q32. ____ breaks a unit of data into smaller segments and stores these segments on multiple disks.

a. Data striping

b. Data mirroring

c. Data checking

d. Data cloning

Q33. A graph directory structure is less flexible than a hierarchical directory structure.

a. true

b. false

Q34. A ____ is a high-speed interconnection between general-purpose servers and a separate storage server.

a. network area storage

b. storage accelerated network

c. storage area network

d. storage area node

Q35. Users and applications view secondary storage logically as a collection of files organized in directories and storage volumes.

a. true

b. false

Q36. Java Platform, Enterprise Edition (Java EE) is a family of standards for developing and deploying component-based distributed applications written in Java.

a. true

b. false

Q37. ____ is an open standard, developed by the World Wide Web Consortium, for distributed object interaction that attempts to address the shortcomings of both CORBA and COM+.

a. XML-RPC

b. Simple Object Access Protocol

c. OLE

d. HTTP

Q38. In large networks, responsibility for maintaining directory content and answering queries is centralized to a few individuals who manage the network.

a. true

b. false

Q39. As OSs have evolved, they have incorporated less middleware functions.

a. true

b. false

Q40. ____ are composed of software components distributed across many computer systems and geographic locations.

a. Information processes

b. Information systems

c. Information networks

d. Information controls

Q41. The Internet and cloud computing change shape and can grow over time.

a. true

b. false

Q42. ____ is a collection of resources that can be accessed over the Internet by standard protocols, such as Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).

a. The World Wide Internet

b. An extranet

c. The World Wide Web

d. An intranet

Q43. A(n) ____ is a standardized, interchangeable software module that is executable, has a unique identifier and has a well-known interface.

a. object

b. bean

c. component

d. resource

Q44. Accurate data is the most important requirement for good configuration decisions.

a. true

b. false

Q45. The ____ composes the majority of an RFP.

a. requirements statement

b. performance statement

c. design statement

d. specifications statement

Q46. A(n) longer-term power sag that is often caused by the power provider is known as a ____.

a. blackout

b. grayout

c. brownout

d. green down

Q47. A(n) ____ is a server that handles service requests from external users of applications.

a. packet-filtering firewall

b. proxy

c. stateful firewall

d. application firewall

Q48. A(n) ____ is a device that provides power to attached devices in the event of external power failure.

a. generator

b. uninterruptible power supply

c. power filter

d. rectifier

Q49. The costs of technology are usually high for developers and early adopters but then decrease slowly after introduction.

a. true

b. false

Q50. Typical ____ include salaries, rent, lease payments, supplies, and equipment maintenance.

a. capital expenditures

b. operating expenditures

c. infrastructure expenditures

d. management expenditures