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Question: The French "Burqa Ban Case" and the European Court's Dahlab v Switzerland opinion represent two instances where the courts sided with the state against the individual's conception of "religious freedom".

Notably, in both cases, the Court recognized and sided with the government's view that the veil was contrary to gender equality, despite many Muslim women believing otherwise.

Does the actual (i.e., scriptural) interpretation of the meaning and purpose of the veil matter in decided these types of cases? Or should the only concern be secular society's perception of it (given that "secularism" is what the state is trying to promote)?

Would your opinion change to the above question if the deciding court, in banning the veil, was a Muslim country like Turkey?