QUESTION 1. Which of the following would not be considered an advantage of testing over a clinical or job interview?

a. Test taker can be compared to a known population

b. Ratings will be consistent for different assessors

c. Assessor can get a good sense of the person as a whole

d. Outcomes can be predicted with known levels of accuracy

QUESTION 2. The first intelligence test was developed by:

a. Binet

b. Wechsler

c. Wundt

d. Socrates

QUESTION 3. Psychological tests are commonly used to assist with decisions regarding:

a. Academic placement

b. Hiring

c. Psychiatric diagnosis

d. All of the above

QUESTION 4. Jill correctly answered 40 out of 50 questions on her final exam and received a score of 80%. This is an example of what type of score?

a. Norm-referenced

b. Criterion-referenced

c. Z-score

d. Percentile

QUESTION 5. Jose was a straight-A student in high school and he has been accepted to a competitive college. He is having trouble deciding on a major. What type of test is most likely to help him make a decision?

a. An intelligence test, such as the Wechsler.

b. An objective test of psychopathology, such as the MMPI.

c. A projective test, such as the Rorschach inkblot test.

d. An interest inventory, such as the Self-Directed Search.

QUESTION 6. A Pearson-r correlation coefficient indicates:

a. The degree and direction of a relationship between two variables

b. The formula to predict one variable from another

c. Whether the means of two groups are significantly different from each other

d. The amount of score variability

QUESTION 7. On a midterm with 100 questions, the mean number correct was 80 with a standard deviation of 2. Shigeko obtained a score of 86. Based on this information, you could say that her performance was:

a. Slightly above average

b. Moderately above average

c. Far above average

d. Average

QUESTION 8. Dr. Roe finds a significant positive correlation between the number of cans of diet soda consumed per year and the number of days sick per year. From this correlation, you can confidently conclude that:

a. Ingredients in diet soda cause illness.

b. People crave diet soda when they are sick.

c. People who drink more diet soda tend to be sick more often.

d. Diet soda drinkers generally have a poorer diet.

QUESTION 9. Coefficient alpha measures:

a. Test item difficulty

b. The degree to which test items are consistent with each other

c. Test stability over time

d. The portion of a test score accounted for by guessing

QUESTION 10. A reliability coefficient of .80 indicates that test score variance is due to:

a. 80% true score; 20% error

b. 20% true score; 80% error

c. 64% true score; 36% error

d. 36% true score; 64% error

QUESTION 11. High test reliability indicates:

a. Low measurement error

b. High measurement error

c. Low prediction error

d. None of the above

QUESTION 12. Professor Rogers has created a test of self-esteem and reported that he obtained a validity coefficient of .85. Before concluding that this is a good test, the most important question to ask is:

a. What are Rogers' academic credentials?

b. How many items are on the test?

c. Against what criterion was the test validated?

d. What is the response format?

QUESTION 13. It would be most appropriate to use a 1-year test-retest reliability coefficient for a test of:

a. Personality

b. Mood

c. Stress level

d. Fatigue

QUESTION 14. Inter-scorer reliability would most likely be reported for a scale with what response format?

a. Open-ended

b. Multiple Choice

c. True/False

d. Rating scale

QUESTION 15. Correlating high school senior SAT scores with their later freshman college GPA is an example of:

a. Concurrent validity

b. Face validity

c. Test-retest validity

d. Predictive validity

QUESTION 16. Which of the following is most likely to be a useful item for a test of self-esteem with a true/false response format?

a. "I feel good about myself."

b. "I feel good about myself and I feel confident."

c. "Either I feel good about myself or I feel confident."

d. "Describe how you feel about yourself."

QUESTION 17. A test item asks the respondent to choose whether he is more "Outgoing" or "Conscientious." This is an example of what kind of item?

a. Ipsative

b. Forced choice

c. Likert

d. a or b

QUESTION 18. A test requires respondents to respond to items by indicating if they "Strongly disagree," "Disagree," "Agree," or "Strongly agree." This is an example of a(n):

a. Open-ended response

b. Likert scale

c. Forced-choice response

d. Multiple-choice response

QUESTION 19. Here are three questions for a measure of anxiety:

Q1) I worry all the time

Q2) I feel very tense

Q3) I feel relaxed

The respondent is asked to rate each item on a 3-point scale, 1: Never, 2: Sometimes, 3: Always. Which of the following formulas would you use to transform Q3 before doing an item analysis?

a. 4 - Q3

b. Q3*(-1)

c. 3 - Q3

d. Q3/3

QUESTION 20. Random selection from a population means that participants are chosen:

a. Haphazardly

b. So that each one has an equal likelihood of being selected

c. So that sample demographics closely match the population demographics

d. By testing participants who are easiest to contact

QUESTION 21. Dr. Campbell uses an Internet form to gather standardization information for a new intelligence test. He wants data for people in an area with over a million residents. This area has few computers and little Internet access. He uses online advertising to direct residents to his test. After persistent efforts, he is able to obtain data for 1,000 residents. He is able to verify reliably that the participants are residents of his area of interest. What would you say about this dataset?

a. The size of the dataset is adequate so this can be considered a representative sample.

b. If the demographics (ethnicity, gender, age) are similar to the area's population demographics, then this can be considered a representative sample.

c. If he obtained a larger sample (i.e., 10,000 people) then the sample could be considered representative.

d. This would not be considered a representative sample, even if it were larger or consistent with population demographics.

QUESTION 22. Computerized adaptive testing (CAT) is a system in which:

a. Items are modified to accommodate disabilities.

b. Items are selected based on responses to previous items.

c. Items are presented which make use of computer graphics.

d. The respondent uses computer input devices specifically designed for the test.

QUESTION 23. Six-year old Billy and his 20-year-old brother Sam both obtain valid IQ scores of 110. Their mother comments that Billy is really smarter since his score is particularly impressive "for a 6-year-old." Which of the following would likely be correct?

a. Billy is not currently smarter, but he will be when he and Sam are both adults.

b. IQ is age adjusted, so Billy and Sam are at the same percentile, relative to their respective age groups.

c. Billy and Sam would be about equally matched on games requiring intelligence, such as chess.

d. Their mother is correct.

QUESTION 24. You have developed a test of musical ability, and would like to report the scores as Stanines, with a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 2. Raw scores on your test have a mean of 30 and a standard deviation of 5. What is the Stanine score for someone who obtains a raw score of 25?

a. 1

b. 3

c. 7

d. 9

QUESTION 25. According to Item Response Theory, "theta" for a particular individual on a particular item is related to:

a. The probability that she will pass the item

b. Her ability to understand the item wording

c. The degree to which the item distinguishes her from other test takers

d. Her likelihood of correctly guessing the answer

QUESTION 26. The three-parameter IRT model indicates which three item characteristics?

a. Discrimination, readability, difficulty

b. Difficulty, unique contribution to the toal score, discrimination

c. Difficulty, chance of guessing correctly, discrimination

d. Reliability, unique contribution to the total score, validity

QUESTION 27. You are creating a new scale using classical test analysis. Which of these four items would you eliminate? Note: Please use the table found at the top of this page to complete this question.

a. Item A

b. Item B

c. Item C

d. Item D

QUESTION 28. Which of the following provides clear evidence of unlawful adverse impact?

a. Men obtain lower scores on a test of management ability and so are less likely to be chosen for certain management positions.

b. White applicants tend to score higher on a job selection test and are hired over lower-scoring nonwhites, even though whites are already overrepresented in the job category.

c. Persons who are under age 40 score higher on a test of popular culture and are hired over older applicants. High scores on this test do not predict better performance on this job.

d. Applicants for a position as a proofreader are given a test of reading ability; an applicant with dyslexia fails the test and is not hired.

QUESTION 29. Which of the following activities is a clear ethical violation?

a. Displaying a few MMPI items on your website for educational purposes

b. Releasing a psychological testing report directly to a client

c. Administering an IQ test and reporting the results to a private client who is curious about his IQ

d. Recommending specific jobs in a vocational assessment

QUESTION 30. DIF is a technique that could be used to determine:

a. Whether an item on a translation of a test functions the same as the original item

b. The percentile rank of a particular client on a test

c. Whether an applicant will be successful on a job, based on test results

d. What a test score would be, adjusting for guessing