BCJ 100 Introductions to Criminal Justice Exam

Part I - Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. Which model emphasizes individual rights?

a. due-process model

b. crime-control model

c. conflict model

d. consensus model

2. Which stage of the criminal justice process examines issues of fact and law for the purpose of reaching a judgment of conviction or acquittal of the defendant?

a. first appearance

b. arrest

c. sentencing

d. trial

3. If a defendant "stands mute" at her arraignment, what plea will be entered by the judge?

a. no contest

b. guilty

c. insanity

d. not guilty

4. Bail is usually set at the _______.

a. first appearance before the judge

b. booking stage

c. preliminary hearing

d. time of arrest

5. About how many people arrested by the police are eventually convicted?

a. 10 percent

b. 25 percent

c. 50 percent

d. 35 percent

6. The USA PATRIOT Act of 2001 was enacted in response to what type of crime?

a. treason

b. civil

c. drugs

d. terrorism

7. If a defendant waives her right to a jury trial, what type of trial will she have?

a. bench

b. attorney

c. peer

d. administrative

8. A law enforcement or correctional administrative process officially recording an entry into detention after arrest and identifying the person, the place, the time, the reason for the arrest and the arresting authority.

a. arraignment

b. bail

c. preliminary hearing

d. booking

9. Bob committed a burglary and confessed his crime to the police. He confessed because the police violated his individual rights and beat him until he confessed. Mary is more concerned about what the police have done than what Bob has done. Mary adheres to the _______ model of criminal justice.

a. crime control

b. due process

c. French

d. multicultural

10. One example of a violent crime is _______.

a. burglary

b. larceny theft

c. motor vehicle theft

d. rape

11. The United States Congress authorized the attorney general to gather and publish the Uniform Crime Reports in _______.

a. 1930

b. 1964

c. 1998

d. 1985

12. All of the following are Part I violent crime offenses except _______.

a. aggravated assault

b. murder

c. identity theft

d. rape

13. What is a term used to describe crimes that occur but are not reported to the police?

a. crime gaps

b. dark figure of crime

c. cleared cases

d. cold cases

14. The Sarbanes-Oxley act focuses on what type of crime?

a. gun

b. corporate

c. organized

d. drug

15. The _______ collects information on crimes suffered by individuals and households, whether or not those crimes were reported to law enforcement.

a. Uniform Crime Reporting Program

b. UCR/N I BRS

c. Crime Index

d. NCVS

16. Which school of criminology explains criminal behavior by looking at physical characteristics and/or genetic makeup?

a. Conflict School

b. Biological School

c. Sociological School

d. Classical School

17. Which of Sheldon's body types is characterized by thinness, fragility and delicacy?

a. ectomorphs

b. phenomorphs

c. endomorphs

d. mesomorphs

18. A "supermale" is said to display what chromosomal structure?

a. XYY

b. XX

c. XY

d. XXY

19. An eighteenth-century approach to crime causation and criminal responsibility that grew out of the enlightenment and emphasized the role of free will and reasonable punishments.

a. Psychological School

b. Positivist School

c. Biological School

d. Classical School

20. Neoclassical criminology emphasizes _______.

a. rationality and cognition

b. free will and hedonistic calculus

c. slow but certain punishment

d. biological destiny

21. What part of criminal law deals with defining crimes and specifying punishments?

a. procedural

b. common

c. civil

d. substantive

22. Which of the following terms refer to gathering, transmitting or losing information related to the national defense in such a manner that the information becomes available to enemies of the United States?

a. inchoate offenses

b. misdemeanors

c. espionage

d. conspiracies

23. The facts surrounding an event are called _______.

a. precedent

b. causation

c. attendant circumstances

d. motive.

24. Typically, civil lawsuits seek _______.

a. to deter others from committing a similar offense

b. compensation

c. to punish a wrongdoer

d. to protect society

25. A/An _______ offense is an offense not yet completed. Also, an offense that consists of an action or conduct that is a step toward the intended commission of the offense.

a. ticketable

b. alter ego

c. treasonable

d. inchoate

Part II - Multiple Choice Questions

1. The Statute of Winchester _______.

a. was used by the Bow Street Runners to apprehend violent criminals

b. formed the new police

c. created the watch and ward

d. was written by Robert Peel

2. Which state created "the first modern state police agency"?

a. New York

b. Pennsylvania

c. Maryland

d. Virginia

3. The Kansas City Preventive Patrol Experiment established that _______.

a. preventive patrol does reduce citizen fear of crime

b. police response time greatly affects the apprehension rate of suspects

c. preventive patrol doesn't reduce citizen fear of crime

d. "preventable crimes" are indeed prevented by patrol

4. A centralized state law enforcement agency _______.

a. is less expensive to operate

b. combines criminal investigations with patrol of state highways

c. is characteristic in the Southern United States

d. has only one headquarters

5. Which of the following individuals is not a famous frontier American lawman?

a. Colin Woods

b. Judge Roy Bean

c. "Wild Bill" Hickok

d. Wyatt Earp

6. What is considered the backbone of police work?

a. traffic

b. patrol

c. crime analysis

d. investigation

7. What federal agency is responsible for managing the database of DNA profiles?

a. Drug Enforcement Administration

b. Federal Bureau of Investigation

c. U.S. Customs

d. The League of Scientists

8. Which local law enforcement official is responsible for serving court papers, maintaining security within courtrooms and running the county jail?

a. police chief

b. bailiff

c. prosecutor

d. sheriff

9. _______ is an early form of police patrol in English cities and towns.

a. Vigilantism

b. Nightwatch

c. Scientific police management

d. Directed patrol

10. A crime-analysis and police-management process built on crime mapping that was developed by the New York City Police Department.

a. Comp Stat

b. Span of Control

c. NLETS

d. POST

11. Preventive patrol, routine incident response, emergency response, criminal investigations, problem solving and support services are _______ strategies.

a. subculture

b. operational

c. community

d. management

12. Which of the following is a characteristic of the reform era (1930s to 1970s) of American policing?

a. Police prided themselves on being professional crime fighters.

b. Police focused on antiterrorism.

c. Police stressed their role of service to the community.

d. Police work was problem-oriented.

13. FIGS, LEO and NLETS are all _______ resources.

a. crime scene investigation

b. staff operation

c. information sharing

d. service style

14. Which of the following statements is false about women in policing?

a. There are generally two groups of police officers: well-integrated officers and officers that feel isolated.

b. Female officers see themselves as police officers first, women second.

c. Female officers are extremely devoted to their work.

d. Female officers are more satisfied with their job when working in non-uniformed capacities.

15. Which of the following is considered an ancillary operational strategy?

a. emergency response

b. support services

c. problem solving

d. preventive patrol

16. The U.S. Supreme Court decided in Illinois v. Perkins that _______.

a. the exclusionary rule does not apply to interrogation cases

b. defendants have the right to an attorney at a lineup

c. the police must obtain a warrant to secure a wiretap

d. inmates freely talking about their crimes to an undercover officer posing as an inmate are not protected by Miranda

17. Concerning informants, which of the following is part of the test established in Aguilar v. Texas?

a. The information is known by at least two detectives.

b. The informant's name must be known.

c. There is reasonable belief that the informant is reliable.

d. The informant must not have a prior record.

18. Which U.S. Supreme Court case made the exclusionary rule applicable to seizures done by federal officers?

a. Johnson v. Avery

b. Chime! v. California

c. Weeks v. U.S.

d. Powell v. Alabama

19. What must provide the basis of suspicion less searches?

a. reasonable suspicion

b. fruit of the poisoned tree doctrine

c. compelling interest in public safety

d. probable cause

20. Which piece of federal legislation has made it easier to intercept many forms of electronic communication?

a. Anti-Death Penalty Act

b. The Hagley-Connor Bill

c. National Wiretap Act

d. USA Patriot Act

21. Historically, officers were allowed to use deadly force to prevent the escape of a suspected felon even when the person represented no immediate threat to the officer or the public. This was known as the _______.

a. Deadly Force Statute

b. Fleeing Felon Rule

c. Escaping Suspect Doctrine

d. "Shoot to Kill" Policy

22. A study by the FBI found that most slain officers were _______.

a. good-natured and conservative in the use of physical force

b. more likely to use physical force than most officers

c. unconcerned about serving the community

d. wearing protective vests

23. A Section 1983 suit is based on an act passed by Congress in 1871 to ensure the _______ of men and women of all races.

a. civil rights

b. education

c. reputations

d. homes

24. The courts have supported drug testing of police officers based on _______ that drug abuse is occurring.

a. proof beyond a reasonable doubt

b. a reasonable suspicion

c. an anonymous tip

d. probable cause

25. Studies of killings by the police have shown _______.

a. about half of all police officers kill someone during the course of their career

b. officers will generally respond with deadly force when mortally threatened and that minorities are considerably more likely to use weapons in assaults on officers than whites

c. In Memphis, Tennessee, African-American property offenders were far less likely than whites to be shot by the police

d. White officers are more likely to be involved in the shooting of suspects than minority officers

Part III - Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which work group member has the responsibility of demonstrating to a jury that a defendant is guilty beyond a reasonable doubt?

a. the bailiff

b. the judge

c. the prosecutor

d. the defense attorney

2. Courts that have the authority to review a decision made by a lower court are said to have _______ jurisdiction.

a. appellate

b. mandatory

c. oversight

d. original

3. How many regional, intermediate appellate courts are there in the federal system?

a. 50

b. 6

c. 1

d. 12

4. The U.S. Supreme Court case of Marbury v. Madison established the Court's authority as the_______ of the U.S. Constitution.

a. drafter

b. custodian

c. ratifier

d. final interpreter

5. The movement of a trial from one location to another is a(n) _______.

a. change of venue

b. appeal

c. duty of the community court

d. example of judicial review

6. The courtroom workgroup includes _______.

a. victims

b. jurors

c. lawyers

d. witnesses

7. A court of last resort has _______ jurisdiction.

a. original

b. unlimited

c. appellate

d. no

8. Who is responsible for swearing in witnesses?

a. clerk of court

b. judge

c. court recorder

d. bailiff

9. Juries in most states are composed of how many members?

a. 23

b. 8

c. 12

d. 6

10. Which of the following represents the order of the steps in a criminal trial?

a. jury selection, trial initiation, opening statements, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, the judge's charge to the jury, jury deliberations, the verdict

b. trial initiation, jury selection, opening statements, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, the judge's charge to the jury, jury deliberations, the verdict

c. trial initiation, opening statements, jury selection, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, the judge's charge to the jury, jury deliberations, the verdict

d. trial initiation, the judge's charge to the jury, jury selection, opening statements, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, jury deliberations, the verdict

11. Bail serves two purposes. One is to help ensure the reappearance of the accused at trial. The other is to _______.

a. help keep defendants employed

b. allow defendants to spend time with their families

c. prevent people who have not been convicted from suffering imprisonment unnecessarily

d. allow defendants to assist the attorneys with their case

12. Release on recognizance _______.

a. occurs in only about one percent of cases

b. results in the defendant's release based on a guarantee that a defendant provides in writing

c. results in the pretrial detention of a suspect

d. is allowed in only six states

13. What study tested the effectiveness of the release-on-recognizance alternative?

a. Bail Reform Study

b. Manhattan Bail Project

c. New Haven Reform Study

d. Philadelphia Freedom Project

14. What type of plea is most similar to a guilty plea?

a. innocence

b. not guilty

c. standing mute

d. nolo contendere

15. When a defendant "stands mute" at her arraignment, she is considered to have entered a _______plea.

a. guilty

b. no-contest

c. insanity

d. not guilty

16. Under the 2005 U.S. Supreme Court cases of U.S. v. Booker and U.S. v. Fanfan, the Federal sentencing Guidelines can no longer be considered _______.

a. by state judges

b. by federal judges

c. mandatory

d. constitutional

17. Which of the following is one of the more rational sentencing goals?

a. rehabilitation

b. incapacitation

c. retribution

d. deterrence

18. About what percentage of federal sentences are the result of guilty pleas?

a. 40

b. 10

c. 65

d. 90

19. What percentage of death row inmates is African-American?

a. 20

b. 5

c. 13

d. 42

20. How many states have passed a constitutional amendment for crime victims?

a. over 30

b. all 50

c. 0

d. exactly 10

21. Which of the following is not cited as a disadvantage of probation and parole?

a. Probation and parole expose the community to greater risk than does incarceration.

b. Probation and parole result in increased social costs.

c. Probation and parole serve a relative lack of punishment upon the offender.

d. Probation and parole programs are underused, enabling practitioners to adequately supervise offenders on their caseloads.

22. Approximately how many probationers successfully completed their probationary term in 2007?

a. 98%

b. 57%

c. 23%

d. 5%

23. Which of the following intermediate sanctions exposes offenders to a highly regimented environment involving strict discipline, physical training and hard labor?

a. shock probation

b. home confinement

c. shock incarceration

d. mixed sentencing

24. What is often described as the strictest form of probation for adults in the United States?

a. shock probation

b. split probation

c. house arrest

d. intensive probation supervision

25. Federal probation officers have the authority to arrest probation violators, but they are encouraged to obtain an arrest warrant from a court and have the warrant executed by _______.

a. the U.S. Marshals Service

b. local police

c. state officials

d. the F.B.I.

Part IV - Multiple Choice Questions

1. Zebulon Brockway, a leading advocate of indeterminate sentencing, is associated with the _______era.

a. industrial

b. reformatory

c. mass prison

d. penitentiary

2. A significant factor that contributes to variation in incarceration rates between states is each state's _______.

a. level of income

b. violent crime rate

c. climate

d. degree of urbanization

3. The majority of offenders housed in federal institutions have been convicted of _______ offenses.

a. drug

b. violent

c. property

d. misdemeanor

4. The use of prison chain gangs, the abolition of parole and taking away some of the "comforts" of prison are aspects of which era of imprisonment?

a. reformatory

b. just deserts

c. penitentiary

d. community-based

5. What early correctional leader developed a system of marks through which prisoners could earn credits to buy their freedom?

a. Sir Walter Crofton

b. Benjamin Rush

c. Captain Alexander Maconochie

d. Zebulon Brockway

6. What type of inmate labor system puts inmates to work cleaning public parks and maintaining roads and highways?

a. state-use system

b. public works system

c. lease system

d. public account system

7. The California Department of Corrections had an unwritten policy of racially segregating prisoners in order to prevent racial violence. In 2005 the U.S. Supreme Court reviewed that policy and held that it _______.

a. was unconstitutional

b. was acceptable because it was in the prisoner's best interest

c. violated the 8th Amendment

d. was acceptable because it served a compelling state interest

8. The Federal Prison Rehabilitation Act of 1965 authorized _______ for federal prisoners.

a. parole

b. work release

c. probation

d. pardons

9. How many security levels are there in the federal prison system?

a. two

b. four

c. five

d. three

10. Prison language is also called _______.

a. prison argot

b. convict talk

c. "the code"

d. the secret vocabulary

11. Wolf v. McDonnell provided inmates with _______.

a. protection against inmate against inmate rape

b. appropriate due process before sanctions could be levied against them

c. the right to work release programs

d. privacy in their cells

12. The most radical form of Islam, _______, is being spread in American prisons providing new recruits who are American citizens.

a. Eastern

b. Wahhabism

c. Abdullah

d. Reformed

13. Which of the following is not a cause of prison riots?

a. multiple treatment opportunities for inmates

b. "power vacuums" created by changes in prison administration

c. dehumanizing prison conditions

d. insensitive prison administration and neglect of inmates' demands

14. At what phase of prison riots do inmates "binge" with alcohol, drug use and violence between rivals occurs?

a. explosion

b. reaction

c. confrontation

d. organization

15. Which state has the largest number of female prisoners?

a. Texas

b. California

c. Ohio

d. New York

16. Which of the following is not one of the six categories of children in the juvenile justice system?

a. delinquent children

b. abused children

c. dependent children

d. uncontrollable children

17. Juveniles younger than 18 account for approximately 16 percent of violent crimes and _______percent of property crimes.

a. 26

b. 75

c. 3

d. 50

18. Schall v. Martin upheld what practice?

a. right to counsel

b. juvenile waiver to adult court

c. confining juveniles in adult prisons

d. preventive detention

19. Kent v. U.S. ended the _______ era in juvenile justice.

a. reform school

b. juvenile court

c. hands off

d. house of refuge

20. Which of the following due process rights was not provided to juveniles in In re Gault?

a. the right to confront and to cross-examine witnesses

b. the notice of charges

c. the right to appeal

d. the right to counsel

21. The number of men held in state prisons as a result of drug crimes has increased by almost 50% since 1990, while the number of women incarcerated for drug crimes has risen by _______.

a. 40%.

b. 63%.

c. 22%.

d. 108%.

22. The 1993 Supreme Court case of Austin v. United States, and a line of cases following it, _______the government's authority to use forfeiture laws against drug criminals.

a. apply the Fourth Amendment to

b. create

c. greatly expand

d. place limits on

23. The 2004 report by the Office of National Drug Control Policy entitled The Economic Costs of Drug Abuse in the United States placed the annual national cost of illicit drug use in the United States at a staggering $180.9 billion. The largest proportion of indirect costs, $128.6 billion, comes from _______.

a. social welfare programs

b. justice system expenditures

c. health care

d. lost worker productivity

24. What drug was not included in the Harrison Narcotics Act of 1914?

a. morphine

b. cocaine

c. marijuana

d. heroin

25. What is the standard of proof used in civil forfeiture cases?

a. preponderance of the evidence

b. beyond a reasonable doubt

c. clear and convincing

d. reasonable suspicion