MCQ's : AMERICAN GOVERNMENT

1. Why did American Colonists stage the Boston Tea Party?
A. in response to taxes they perceived as unfair
B. in response to British infringement on the individual liberties of the Colonists
C. in response to the British massacres at Lexington and Concord
D. because the British government was forcing them to use tea imported by the East India Tea Company

2. Which of the following is the best example of tyranny of the majority?
a. Representative Jones consistently votes to block gay marriage
b. Representative Jones is re-elected to office by a plurality of votes
c. Representative Jones loses the election because of his position on gay marriage
d. Representative Jones does what his constituents tell him to do, resulting in a ban on gay marriage

3. Colonial protesters of the Stamp Act and the Sugar Act rallied around what famous political slogan?
A. No taxation without representation
B. Give me liberty or give me death
C. Remember the Alamo
D. A house divided against itself cannot stand

4. Who agreed to act as legal representative for the British soldiers accused of killing American colonists in the Boston Massacre?
A. Thomas Jefferson
B. Samuel Adams
C. John Adams
D. John Hancock

5. The Revolutionary War arose out of which of the following events:
A. The British raised revenue by increasing the tax rate of the colonies
B. The British had established alliances with Indian Tribes during the French and Indian Wars
C. A failed plot to assassinate King George II, allegedly fomented by American separatists
D. Protestant colonial fundamentalists were attempting to establish a theocracy

6. Which of the following was the primary means by which the British Government taxed American colonies?
A. personal income tax
B. tax imposed on commercial products
C. animal head tax
D. property tax

7. Which of the following was NOT a result of the Boston Tea Party:
A. Boston Harbor was closed by the British
B. Colonialists were instructed not to inhabit lands in the West
C. a change in colonial government
D. The Boston Massacre

8. Which of the following men was NOT appointed to help draft the Declaration of Independence?
A. Thomas Jefferson
B. Benjamin Franklin
C. John Adams
D. George Washington

9. The first written constitution for the United States was called:
A. the Magna Carta
B. the Bill of Rights
C. the Articles of Confederation
D. the Constitution

10. Under the first constitution of the United States:
A. there was no effective executive branch
B. the president was more powerful than congress
C. the senate was the most powerful political institution
D. the president was directly appointed by the state legislatures

11. How was power in Congress divided under the Articles of Confederation?
A. each state had an equal vote
B. each state=s votes were proportionate to that state=s population
C. the states were not formally represented in congress
D. each state=s power depended on its geographic size

12. What was the purpose of the Annapolis Convention?
A. to discuss the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation
B. to plot what became known as Shays= Rebellion
C. to write the Declaration of Independence
D. to draft a new Bill of Rights

13. A subsequent Constitutional Convention was held in Philadelphia; which was the only state NOT to send delegates to the Philadelphia Convention?
A. Rhode Island
B. Massachusetts
C. Virginia
D. New York

14. According to Historian Charles Beard, the founding fathers were most concerned with:
A. establishing principles of good government
B. pursuing military glory and imperialism
C. promoting and protecting their economic interests
D. creating a religious community

15. Two plans were advanced at the Philadelphia Convention. The plan where congressional representation was calculated based on each state=s population was called the
A. Virginia Plan
B. Adams Proposal
C. New Hampshire Plan
D. Washington Doctrine

16. The New Jersey Plan proposed:
A. representation would be equal for each state
B. representation would be apportioned according to population
C. the powers of congress would check those of state legislatures
D. representatives to congress would be appointed by the state legislatures

17. The Great Compromise at the Philadelphia Convention lead to the
A. legalization of slavery
B. creation of a bicameral congress
C. creation of the Supreme Court
D. peaceful conclusion of Shays= Rebellion

18. What was the three-fifths compromise?
A. it determined how slaves would be counted for the purposes of representation and taxation
B. it determined the ratio between free and slave states
C. it created a bicameral legislature
D. the states would pay three-fifths of the Revolutionary War debt and the federal government would pay the rest

19. Which of the following accurately describes how the early Constitution addressed slavery:
A. slavery was limited only to those states where it legally existed at the time the Constitution was ratified
B. slavery was legalized
C. the question of slavery was put off for twenty years in hopes that it would die out on its own
D. slaves were given limited rights to petition for their freedom in court

20. Which of the founding fathers earned the title Aarchitect of the Constitution@?
A. George Washington
B. Benjamin Franklin
C. Thomas Jefferson
D. James Madison

21. Which office was designed by the framers to be filled by an individual who was directly elected by the people:
A. state representative
B. senator
C. president
D. all of the above

22. What is the term length of a member of the House of Representatives?
A. one year
B. two years
C. four years
D. six years

23. Which of the following is NOT true:
A. a senator has a longer term of office than any other elected official identified in the Constitution
B. the Senate has staggered terms of office
C. the early constitution provided that senators be appointed by State legislatures
D. the Senate decides who should be impeached

24. When the President disagrees with a Supreme Court decision, which of the following responses is possible, under the Constitution?
A. The President can veto a decision of the Supreme Court
B. The President can remove the judge from the bench
C. The President can refuse to enforce a decision of the Court
D. The President can overrule a decision of the Court

25. Which of the following Supreme Court cases concluded that Congress may not grant authority unless it is expressly granted by the Constitution?
A. Brown v. Board of Education
B. Plessy v. Fergusson
C. Marbury v. Madison
D. Gibbons v. Ogden

26. Which of the following Supreme Court cases concluded that a State may not pass a law which interferes with interstate commerce?
A. Marbury v. Madison
B. McCulloch v. Maryland
C. Gibbons v. Ogden
D. Grant v. Lee

27. Which of the following best describes Thomas Jefferson=s view of the role of a national government?
A. strong central government is best because it is necessary for a strong nation
B. strong central government is bad because it can=t respond effectively to local problems
C. the federal government should stay out of foreign intrigues
D. none of the above

28. Which of the following were known as the leaders of the strong vs weak (in that order) national government argument?
A. Jefferson vs. Adams
B. Adams vs. Washington
C. Hamilton vs. Jefferson
D. Madison vs. Paine

29. How does the Supreme Court control the power of the Legislature?
A. By impeaching a member of Congress
B. By veto of legislation passed by Congress
C. By confirming (or refusing to confirm) individuals appointed by the Executive Branch
D. By declaring legislation passed by Congress unconstitutional

30. The three branches of government created by the Constitution are
A. constitutional, elected, appointed
B. executive, legislative, judicial
C. federal, state, local
D. the judiciary, the president, the senate

31. Which of the following is true about the ratification of the United States Constitution:
A. All thirteen states were required to ratify the new constitution for it to take effect
B. The States unanimously agreed not to ratify until a bill of rights was added
C. While the Articles of Confederation required unanimous agreement to modify it, the new Constitution took effect after only nine of the original thirteen colonies ratified
D. The Constitution took effect once both the House and Senate voted to accept it

32. In the national debate over ratification of the new Constitution, the Federalists
A. supported the Articles of Confederation
B. opposed the Constitution and preferred decentralized national government
C. supported the Constitution and preferred a strong national government
D. supported establishing a new alliance with Britain due to the new government=s weak financial status

33. The framers intended that the new, stronger powers of a strong national government could be controlled by:
A. providing Congress with sufficient military power to quell internal disputes
B. decreasing the powers of the executive branch
C. confining the authority of the federal government as a whole to certain narrowly defined areas to be expressly identified by the Constitution
D. creating a system of checks and balances between the various branches of government

34. AImplied Powers@ of the Federal Government are justified in what section of the Constitution?
A. the full faith and credit clause
B. the commerce clause
C. the necessary and proper clause
D. Article Three

35. Which of the following Supreme Court cases concluded that the Anecessary and proper@ clause gives the Federal government authority to act even in cases not expressly identified by the Constitution:
A. Gibbons v. Ogden
B. McCulloch v. Maryland
C. Hamilton v. Burr
D. Marbury v. Madison

36. Which of the following Constitutional clauses is the source of the rule that national laws and treaties are the supreme law of the land:
A. the full faith and credit clause
B. the necessary and proper clause
C. the tenth amendment
D. the supremacy clause

37. The full faith and credit clause (Article IV section 1) requires:
A. national government to assume debts accumulated by the colonies prior to and during the Revolutionary War
B. national government to accept outstanding federal debt accumulated AFTER the Revolutionary War
C. each state to honor public acts and legal decisions of every other state
D. each state to find ways to implement unfunded mandates imposed by the Federal government

38. When the Bill of Rights was ratified, the immediate effect was to:
A. prohibit the states from infringing on freedom of speech, press, and the right to trial by jury
B. more fully define the structure of the various branches of government
C. offer equal protection to all citizens of the United States
D. limit the power of the national government over the individual states

39. Which of the following is true about the Constitutional amendments:
A. All of them were originally proposed by Congress
B. Some of them originated by constitutional convention
C. Most constitutional amendments have been ratified through state conventions
D. All the amendments were ratified by Congress

40. Growth in the Federal government was the greatest during which of the following presidents:
A. Franklin D. Roosevelt
B. Lyndon B. Johnson
C. Richard M. Nixon
D. Ronald Reagan

41. The form of government in which local governments exercise only those powers given to them by the central government is called:
A. a unitary government
B. a confederal government
C. a federal government
D. a bicameral government

42. Most countries today, including France, Britain, Israel and China, have
A. unitary government
B. confederal government
C. federal government
D. bicameral government

43. The United States has what type of government?
A. unitary
B. confederal
C. federal
D. direct democracy

44. Powers specifically granted by the Constitution are known as:
A. implied
B. express
C. numerated
D. inherent

45. Which of the following is an example of a concurrent power?
A. the power to tax
B. the power to declare war
C. the power to regulate interstate commerce
D. the power to print money

46. The Magna Carta applied to which of the following monarchs:
A. King Charles I
B. King James II
C. William of Orange
D. King John

47. The Petition of Right was intended to reign in abuses perpetrated by:
A. King Edward II
B. King Charles I
C. King James II
D. King Henry VIII

48. The English Bill of Rights was written in response to abuses of power by which of the following:
A. King John
B. King James II
C. King Charles I
D. Oliver Cromwell

49. Which of the following founding fathers did NOT come from Virginia Colony:
A. Thomas Jefferson
B. George Washington
C. John Adams
D. James Madison

50. In what year was the United States Constitution ratified? A. 1787
B. 1788
C. 1789
D. 1776

51. The Bill of Rights is
A. the first ten amendments to the Constitution
B. all of the civil liberties and civil rights found in the constitution
C. the first national constitution in the United States
D. implemented through the Fourteenth Amendment

52. Which of the following is NOT a liberty protected by the Bill of Rights?
A. the free exercise of religion
B. freedom from unreasonable searches and seizures
C. guarantee of the due process of law
D. equal protection of the laws

53. What was the main reason why Hamilton did not want a Bill of Rights?
A. He wanted the government to have as much power as possible
B. He believed that too many individual liberties destroyed the trust between citizen and government
C. He believed it was unnecessary because the constitution limited the federal government to use only specifically designated powers
D. A bill of rights would make the Constitution too difficult for the common man to understand

54. The Bill of Rights was written because
A. anti-Federalists demanded one as the price of ratification of the Constitution.
B. the Federalists realized that no constitution would last for long with a Bill of Rights
C. the early federal government was violating too many individual rights
D. George Washington supported it

55. Which of the following is true about the Supremacy Clause:
A. It was added because Alexander Hamilton insisted it was necessary to give full authority to the Federal Government
B. The Clause grants supreme authority to the President during time of war
C. It explains which branch of government has authority to break a tie vote in Congress
D. It provides that the States must yield to the authority of the Federal government when conflicting policies arise

56. In McCulloch v. Maryland the Supreme Court:
A. ruled that congress had no authority to create a national bank
B. ruled that while congress had no authority to create a national bank, Maryland also had no authority to TAX the national bank
C. ruled that the constitution granted congress Aimplied power@ to create a bank, but that Maryland also must be given a means of protecting itself against competition by the national government
D. ruled that the states had no authority to tax the federal government

57. In Gibbons v. Ogden the Supreme Court
A. held that the commerce clause and the supremacy clause together give the federal government authority to prevent the states from interfering with interstate commerce
B. ruled that congress has no authority to interfere in matters occurring entirely within the boundaries of a state
C. expressly limited the authority of the national government in matters of commerce
D. stated that the power to regulate interstate commerce is one that is shared between the federal and state governments

58. Which Supreme Court Justice was most responsible for increasing the power of the national government during the first fifty years of our nation's history?
A. John Simon Ritchie
B. Bushrod Washington
C. Roger Taney
D. John Marshall

59. Alexander Hamilton believed:
A. we can trust the people to do what is right
B. big government is not to be trusted
C. all politics are local politics
D. the nation's federal government must be both powerful and energetic

60. Which of the following accurately describes an unfunded mandate?
A. it is unconstitutional
B. it is a federal rule requiring the states to do something
C. it is a means of avoiding a federal rule; the states can reject anything that is not funded
D. it is a mandate which will be funded at some time in the future

61. The "wall of separation" between church and state
A. is a phrase that is specifically found in the text of the Constitution
B. explains why no American colony established an official religion
C. is the first step when the government wishes to annex church property for public use
D. is a way of interpreting the First Amendment

62. When a government blocks the publication of material it does not want released, this is known as
A. sedition
B. speech plus
C. prior restraint
D. clear and present danger

63. In Lemon v. Kurtzman the Supreme Court
A. allowed students to stand silently rather than participate in school prayer
B. ruled that direct state aid may not be used to subsidize religious instruction
C. required all students to recite the pledge of allegiance
D. ruled that parochial schools could not be exempted from property taxes

64. Which of the following types of speech is not protected by the First Amendment?
A. slander
B. fighting words
C. obscenity
D. all of the above

65. In order for a public official to win a libel suit against a newspaper, the official must prove
A. the story was false
B. the story was malicious
C. the story was both false and malicious
D. libelous stories receive absolute protection of the story is about a public official

66. About what did Justice Potter Stewart assert AI know it when I see it?@
A. expressionist painters
B. speech inciting violence
C. pornography
D. sedition

67. The media with the most limited First Amendment protection (and therefore subject to more government control) is
A. the Internet
B. print media
C. radio and TV
D. all media enjoy the same protections.

68. Commercial speech is
A. defined as any form of expression for which the author is paid.
B. defined as any non-political speech.
C. defined as advertising statements.
D. subject to exactly the same constitutional protections as any other type of speech.

69. The Fourth, Fifth, Sixth and Eighth Amendments are largely about
A. protections for those accused of committing a crime
B. the right to privacy
C. equal protection
D. limitations on economic regulation

70. Cruel and unusual punishment is prohibited by
A. the separation of powers.
B. the First Amendment.
C. the Fourth Amendment.
D. the Eighth Amendment.

71. The rule forbids the introduction in trial of unconstitutionally obtained evidence
A. warrant
B. exclusionary
C. Miranda
D. ex post facto

72. Which Supreme Court case first applied the exclusionary rule to the states?
A. Miranda v. Arizona
B. Near v. Minnesota
C. Mapp v. Ohio
D. Palko v. Connecticut

73. The Fourth Amendment protects against:
A. cruel and unusual punishments
B. unreasonable search and seizure
C. self incrimination
D. quartering military troops in private homes

74. What is a Grand Jury?
A. the name for juries used in Federal Courts
B. A jury that determines whether enough evidence exists to file criminal charges
C. A jury that determines the guilt or innocence of the accused
D. A jury that determines the sentence after guilt has been proven

75. The right against prevents persons from being tried twice for the same crime.
A. self incrimination
B. exclusion
C. unreasonable seizures
D. double jeopardy

76. A person under arrest is entitled to be informed of their right to remain silent, according to which case:
A. Mapp
B. Gideon
C. Miranda
D. Palko

77. A person=s right to counsel in a criminal case was established by which case:
A. Mapp
B. Gideon
C. Miranda
D. Palko

78. The Fifth Amendment
A. prohibits the government from taking your land without compensation
B. prohibits cruel and unusual punishment
C. mandates the appointment of a lawyer in all criminal cases
D. creates the right to a writ of habeas corpus

79. The Supreme Court=s decision affirming a woman=s right to abortion is based on
A. due process of law
B. equal protection
C. the right to privacy
D. protection against cruel and unusual punishment

80. The Bill of Rights is applied to the States through
A. The First Amendment
B. The Fourteenth Amendment
C. Plessy v. Ferguson
D. Roe v. Wade