In Mexico in 1950, the richest 5% earned 40% of the income and the poorest 40% earned 14.3%of the income. In 1957, the richest 5% earned 37% of the income and the poorest 40% earned 11.3% of the income. In 1963, the richest 5% earned 28.8% of the income and the poorest 40% earned 10.1% of the income. Has inequality gone up or down between 1950 and 1957, between 1957 and 1963, and between 1950 and 1963, according to the Lorenz criterion? Justify answer graphically.