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In contradiction to Kant, Fichte and Schelling claim that an absolute I exists, and that is the foundational principle of all that is. Against all common sense, do Fichte and Schelling claim that nothing exists independently of the 'I'? Does Kant claim that things in themselves exist outside of us or not? If something exists independently of the 'I think' or the 'I am', how would you prove it?

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