Q. 1. In later cases, the United States Supreme Court modified the test to comprise in-vestments in which profits come "primarily or substantially" from others' efforts. Which of these definitions do you think is fairer? Should investments in which profits come only "partly" from others' efforts also be comprised? Elucidate why or elucidate why not?
2. Do you agree with the Supreme Court's definition in this case, or do you think which the lower courts were correct to regard the land and service contracts separately? Elucidate why?