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Joe, a 15-year-old male, was admitted to the ED with photophobia, neck pain, and a skin rash. A lumbar puncture produced cloudy CSF and led to a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.

1. Why is the CSF cloudy instead of clear? Be specific.

2. After no response to IV antibiotics, the doctor plans to treat with antibiotics administered via lumbar puncture. Why would this approach be more successful?

3. Can the doctor use the same dosage in the IV as the LP? Why or why not?

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