According to the study by Chris Carroll et al cited in article #17a by Nick Bunker ("Wealth Inequality and the Marginal Propensity to Consume") middle-income families have a larger mpc than do wealth families. In which case below would the multiplier be larger? Explain why.

• (Today) When the wealthy owners of consumer goods companies are paid 300 times as much as the typical worker in their companies, as is true today, or

• (50 years ago) When the wealthy owners of consumer goods companies are paid 20 times as much as the typical worker in their companies, as was true fifty years ago