1. Which represents the CURRENT correct makeup of the U.S. Supreme Court?

A) Two Chief Justice and Five Associate Justices

B) One Chief Justice and Four Associate Justices

C) One Chief Justice and Five Associate Justices

D) One Chief Justice and Eight Associate Justices

2. The 1970 NYPD Knapp Commission distinguished between two types of corrupt officers. They included:

A) “Abusive” and “Non-Abusive”

B) “Donut eaters” and “Meat Eaters”

C) “Grass eaters” and “Meat eaters”

D) All the above

3. The 1960s exploded with nationwide civil unrest. This occurred due to:

A) The Vietnam War

B) Lower crime rates

C) Controversial Supreme Court decisions involving rights of the accused

D) A desire for more educated police officers due to corruption and brutality

E) Answers A, C, and D

4. How much force can a police officer use?

A) As much as possible.

B) What amount it takes to establish his/her authority in the neighborhood.

C) The same amount as his/her partner is using.

D) Only the amount that is reasonable and necessary to bring an unlawful circumstance under control.

5. In 1989, the International Association of Chiefs of Police (IACP) established what?

A) The Law Enforcement Code of Conduct

B) The Police Officer’s Compensation Fund.

C) The Police Officer’s Bill of Rights.

D) All the Above

6. At what stage in the court process does a defendant enter a plea of guilty, not guilty or no contest?

A) The preliminary hearing

B) First appearance

C) The Grand Jury

D) Arraignment and plea

E) Pretrial release and bail

7. In the Use of Force Model/Continuum discussed in class, what level of force is deadly force?

A) Level 3

B) Level 2

C) Level 5

D) Level 1

E) Level 4

8. Weeks v. United States (1914) established “The Exclusionary Rule”. Briefly discuss what that case said and how it affected law enforcement. Please respond in complete sentences.

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9. The basic concepts of Community Policing were discussed in class. They included:

A) Police-Community Relations

B) Team Policing

C) Citizen Policing

D) Problem-Oriented Policing

E) A, B, and D are correct

10. Match the case law with that laws affect on the criminal justice system:

A. Klopfer v. North Carolina (1967)

B. U.S. v. Taylor (1988)

C. Brady v. Maryland (1963)

D. U.S. v. Bagley (1985)

E. Gideon v. Wainwright (1963)

F. Argersinger v. Hamlin (1972)

G. In re Gault (1967)

H. Alabama v. Shelton

Held a speedy trial is a fundamental guarantee of the U.S. Constitution.

Held when delay is the result of actions by the defendant, the 70 day rule does not apply.

Held the prosecution is required to disclose to the defense any “exculpatory evidence” in its possession that directly or indirectly relates to claims of either guilt or innocence.

Held the prosecution must disclose any evidence in its possession the defense requests.

Held an indigent defendant has a Sixth Amendment right to legal representative appointed in all State criminal trials.

Held the accused in any criminal prosecution involving the potential deprivation of liberty is entitled to counsel (this included misdemeanor cases).

Held under the Fourteenth Amendment all juveniles accused in a criminal case has many of the same Due Process rights as adults.

Held the accused in any criminal prosecution involving even the slightest potential of deprivation of liberty is entitled to counsel (this included very minor charges).

11. During the voir dire process (selection of a jury) the prosecution and defense attorneys can eliminate potential jurors for two reasons. They are:

A) A Challenge for Cause and a Peremptory challenge.

B) The attorneys cannot eliminate any citizen for any reason because it is against the US Constitution.

C) Any reason is acceptable; they are just allowed a certain number of challenges per trial regardless of the type of challenge.

D) Only the judge can make challenges since it is his/her courtroom.

12. What Landmark case dealt specifically with the 8th Amendment right against cruel and unusual punishment?

A) Gideon v. Wainwright (1963)

B) Oliver v. United States (1984)

C) Furman v. Georgia (1972)

D) Horton v. California, 496 U.S. 128, 136-137 (1990)

13. Who “sits” on a Grand Jury?

A) The Supreme Court Justices

B) A panel of three hand-selected judges

C) A special panel of specifically trained lawyers

D) Citizens from the community

14. The three types of evidence discussed were:

A) Direct, Material, Contaminated.

B) Direct, Circumstantial, Real.

C) Physical, Material or Trace.

D) Uncontaminated, Contaminated, Suspect evidence.

15. In what even were the most police officers killed in the line-of-duty in a single day?

A) The Boston Massacre of 1889

B) The Oklahoma City Murray Federal building bombing of 1995

C) The Waco Texas/Branch Davidian final assault of 1993.

D) 9/11 World Trade Towers attack of 2001

16. A crime has not been committed unless there is Harm, Legality, Actus reus- (“guilty act”), Mens rea- (“guilty mind”) and which of the following?

A) Causation-a causal relationship between the legally forbidden harm and the actus reus, and the act must lead directly to the harm without a long delay.

B) Concurrence-a concurrence between the actus reus and the mens rea; the criminal conduct and the criminal intent must occur together.

C) Punishment- a statutory provision for punishment.

D) All of the above elements are required for a crime to occur

17. What type of searches did Mapp v. Ohio (1961) have an effect on?

A) Persons

B) Vehicles

C) Open land

D) Personal Residences

18. In Terry v. Ohio (1968) the courts held officers needed what to support the concept of “Reasonable Suspicion”?

A) A good hunch

B) An informant

C) Just the facts as best as they could remember

D) Articulable facts

19. Which case decision gave law enforcement the concept of “Reasonable Suspicion”?

A) Chimel v. California (1969)

B) Terry v. Ohio (1968)

C) Horton v. California (1990)

D) Hester v. United States (1924)

20. Which corruption investigation investigated the LAPD in the mid 2000’s?

A) The Knapp Commission

B) The Rampart Scandal

C) The Mollen Commission

D) The California Governors Commission

21. Those in the legal profession have ethical standards which are laid out by the American Bar Association (ABA) which has drafted several Codes of Conduct. Which of the following is an example of that code?

A) Canons of Professional Ethics

B) ABA Model Code of Professional Responsibility

C) ABA Model Rules of Professional Conduct

D) All the above are correct

22. Which element within most municipal police departments comprises the majority of the resources?

A) Investigations

B) Traffic Enforcement

C) Vice

D) Patrol

E) Juvenile

23. What effect did Tennessee v. Garner (1985) have on law enforcement?

A) It had no effect on law enforcement at all.

B) It affected law enforcement’s ability to conduct personal searches.

C) It affected how law enforcement would use deadly force when pursuing a fleeing subject.

D) It affected law enforcement’s ability to conduct vehicle searches.

24. Discuss the history and concepts of Original vs. Appellate Jurisdiction. Please respond in complete sentences.

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25. In which case did the Supreme Court rule a law was “unconstitutional”?

A) Keeney v. Tamayo-Reyes (1992)

B) Herrera v. Collins (1993)

C) Marbury v. Madison (1803)

D) Burns v. Reed, 500 U.S. 478 (1991)

26. The courts make decisions based on established law or legal precedence. Law in the U.S. is derived from which sources:

A) Constitutional law

B) Statutory law

C) Administrative regulations

D) Common law

E) All the above

27. What is the guiding principle that controls law enforcement in all they do?

A) Due process

B) Fairness

C) Convicting criminals

D) High statistical data

28. In 1972-73, which experimental police project tested the use of different patrol strategies on crime rates and citizens’ fear of crime?

A) The Kansas City Patrol Experiment

B) The Boston Gun Project (Operation Ceasefire)

C) Weed-and-Seed programs

D) The Kansas City Gun Experiment

E) The Minneapolis Domestic Violence Experiment

29. Most criminal cases originate from which court:

A) State Court

B) Federal Court

C) World Court

D) All the above

30. Which act established the U.S. Supreme Court?

A) Courts Act of 1777

B) Judiciary Act of 1789

C) Supreme Court Act of 1783

D) Congressional Judiciary Act of 1776

31. What Landmark case dealt specifically with the 6th Amendment right of the accused?

A) Gideon v. Wainwright (1963)

B) Mapp v. Ohio (1961)

C) Weeks v. United States (1914)

D) All the above

32. Carroll v. United States (1925) specifically dealt with what type of searches?

A) Persons

B) Automobiles

C) Residences

D) Business

33. There are generally two types of Trial courts; Courts of Limited or Special Jurisdiction (lower courts) and ________________________.

A) Courts of Select Jurisdiction

B) Courts of Direct Jurisdiction

C) Courts of State Jurisdiction

D) Courts of General Jurisdiction

34. Which Amendment to the U.S. Constitution dealt specifically with searches?

A) 4th Amendment

B) 5nd Amendment

C) 1nd Amendment

D) 14th Amendment

35. Which law may contradict the U.S. Constitution?

A) Local ordinances

B) Any law

C) State law

D) No law

36. True or False-The U.S. Constitution guarantees all U.S. citizens the right to be heard in an appeal process by the United States Supreme Court regardless of the type of case, grievance or appeal.

A) True

B) False

37. Discuss the concept of the “Plea Bargain”. What does it mean, who does it apply to, who is involved in the process and what is it purposes? Please respond in complete sentences.

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38. Part of the Problem-Orientated policing concept was a result of the “Broken Windows” article written by criminologists James Q. Wilson and George Kelling. Briefly discuss that article and what its basic premise was, please respond in complete sentences.

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39. What Landmark case dealt specifically with the 5th Amendment right against self-incrimination?

A) United States v. Smith (10th Cir.1986)

B) Hester v. United States (1924)

C) Chimel v. California (1969)

D) Miranda v. Arizona (1966)