1) Mintzberg concluded that managers perform 10 different, highly interrelated roles. Which of the following is one of the broad categories into which these roles might be grouped?
A. Institutional
B. Decisional
C. Affective
D. Intrapersonal
E. Reflective
2) Over the past 2 decades, business schools have added required courses on people skills to many of their curricula. Why have they done this?
A. There is an increased emphasis in controlling employee behavior in the workplace.
B. Managers need to understand human behavior if they are to be effective.
C. These skills enable managers to effectively lead human resources departments.
D. Managers no longer need technical skills in subjects such as economics and
accounting to succeed.
E. A manager with good people skills can help create a pleasant workplace.
3) Which of the following is best defined as a consciously coordinated social unit,composed of two or more people, which functions on a relatively continuous basis to achieve a common goal or set of goals?
A. Unit
B. Team
C. Community
D. Party
E. Organization
4) Which of the following is not 1 of the 4 primary management functions?
A. Planning
B. Controlling
C. Staffing
D. Organizing
E. Leading
5) Determining how tasks are to be grouped is part of which management
function?
A. Leading
B. Planning
C. Controlling
D. Organizing
E. Contemplating
6) Which of the following is least likely to be considered a manager?
A. A lieutenant leading an infantry platoon
B. An administrator in charge of fund-raising activities in a nonprofit organization
C. A doctor who acts as head of the physiotherapy department at a public hospital
D. The mayor of a large city
E. An IT technician who enables communication between all of a company's
Employees
7) Which of the following is a reason that the study of organizational behavior is useful?
A. Human behavior is not random.
B. Human behavior does not vary a great deal between individuals and situations.
C. Human behavior is not consistent.
D. Human behavior is rarely predictable.
E. Human behavior is often not sensible.
8) Which behavioral science discipline is most focused on understanding individual
behavior?
A. Social psychology
B. Sociology
C. Psychology
D. Anthropology
E. Organizational behavior
9) What do the fundamental consistencies underlying the behavior of all
individuals enable researchers to do?
A. Systematize human behavior.
B. Observe human behavior.
C. Research human behavior.
D. Predict human behavior.
E. Detect human behavior.
10) Which of the following is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings
people experience?
A. Emotions
B. Affect
C. Moods
D. Emotional labor
E. Cognition
11) Erin works on a software help desk. After being yelled at by a customer about the state of her company's software, she becomes angry, and has to take a short break to calm down. What makes her anger an emotion rather than a mood?
A. It interferes with her capacity to work effectively.
B. It cannot be controlled when it is elicited.
C. It can be controlled given some time.
D. It has a contextual stimulus.
E. It is a simple, unambiguous feeling.
12) Which of the following statements is generally accepted by experts?
A. Emotions cause moods.
B. Moods and emotions can mutually influence one another.
C. Moods and emotions are the same phenomena.
D. Moods and emotions are both caused by introspection.
E. Moods cause emotions.
13) What does the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classification of S or N stand for?
A. Sensing or thinking
B. Sane or reflective
C. Emotional stability or thinking
D. Emotional stability or intuitive
E. Sensing or intuitive
14) All of the following are classifications on the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
except __________.
A. sensing or intuitive
B. thinking or feeling
C. independent or dependent
D. perceiving or judging
E. extroverted or introverted
15) If personality characteristics were completely dictated by __________, they would be fixed at birth and no amount of experience could alter them.
A. heredity
B. religion
C. situations
D. environment
E. job satisfaction
16) Henry is dissatisfied with his job, but believes that his supervisor is a good man who will do the right thing. Henry has decided that if he just waits, conditions will improve. Henry's approach to this problem is termed __________.
A. voice
B. reification
C. neglect
D. loyalty
E. exit
17) Compared to people who have a negative core self-evaluation, people who have a positive core self-evaluation __________.
A. see their work as less challenging
B. are less likely to give up when confronting difficulties
C. are less likely to gravitate toward challenging jobs
D. see their work as less fulfilling
E. are less satisfied with their jobs
18) Which of the following is not generally true?
A. Productive workers are satisfied workers.
B. Satisfaction comes down to fairness of outcomes, treatments, or procedures.
C. Satisfaction is the major determinant of a worker's OCB.
D. Enterprises with a greater percentage of satisfied workers are more effective than
those with a smaller percentage of satisfied workers.
E. Satisfied workers are productive workers.
19) Which of the following qualities is not found in work groups?
A. Enthusiasm
B. Objectives
C. Synergy
D. Security
E. Energy
20) Which of the following statements best defines a work group?
A. A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage
in work that requires joint effort.
B. A work group consists of three or more people from across departmental or
functional lines.
C. A work group consists of three or more people who take on self-supervising
responsibilities.
D. A work group is a group comprised of 10 or more people.
E. The performance of a work group is generally greater than the sum of its input from
individual members.
21) Which of the following helps explain the current popularity of teams?
A. Teams are a way to better utilize employee talents.
B. Teams promote socialization.
C. Teams are less expensive.
D. Teams are very efficient.
E. Teams are easier to manage.
22) Groups based on support for a given sports team are examples of what sort of
group?
A. Interest
B. Sports
C. Friendship
D. Miscreant
E. Booster
23) What are the five stages of group development?
A. Introduction, development, production, deterioration, and adjournment
B. Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning
C. Initiation, evolution, maturation, degeneration, and termination
D. Acting, reacting, enacting, impacting, acting
E. Generation, implementation, construction, production, and termination
24) What sort of group is defined by the organization's structure?
A. Task
B. Interest
C. Friendship
D. Formal
E. Informal
25) Zach is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion, but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Zach would like the promotion, but realizes that it would forcehim to miss some church activities. It is likely that Zach is experiencing which of the following:
A. Role expectation
B. Psychological conflict
C. Role perception
D. Cognitive reactance
E. Role conflict
26) What sort of group should you avoid if you want to minimize interpersonal conflict?
A. Brainstorming
B. Nominal
C. Interacting
D. Social
E. Electronic
27) High levels of conflict are always detrimental to group performance.
A. True
B. False
28) Leadership is best defined as __________.
A. keeping order and consistency in the midst of change
B. implementing the vision and strategy provided by management
C. the ability to influence a group in goal achievement
D. not a relevant variable in modern organizations
E. coordinating and staffing the organization and handling day-to-day problems
29) Which of the following statements regarding leadership is true?
A. Formal rights enable managers to lead effectively.
B. All managers are leaders.
C. All leaders are managers.
D. Nonsanctioned leadership is as important as or more important than formal
influence.
E. All leaders are hierarchically superior to followers.
30) John Kotter argues that management focuses on coping with complexity, whereas leadership focuses on coping with __________.
A. success
B. defeat
C. conflict
D. change
E. morale
31) Which model represents the theory that effective group performance depends on the proper match between a leader's style and the degree to which the situation gives control to the leader?
A. Leader-Member Exchange Model
B. Fiedler's Contingency Model
C. Hersey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership Model
D. Vroom and Yetton's Leader-Participation Model
E. None of the above
32) All contingency theories are based on the idea that effective leadership performance depends on __________.
A. the proper match between the leader's style and the control the situation gives the
leader
B. selecting the right leadership style based on the level of the followers' readiness
C. using a leadership style that is appropriate to the situational conditions
D. making use of the best path for the goal that is identified
E. none of the above
33) Fiedler's contingency model assumes that an individual's leadership style is
__________.
A. contingent
B. situational
C. changeable
D. intangible
E. fixed
34) According to Hersey and Blanchard, readiness encompasses the __________.
A. degree of confidence, trust, and respect members have in their leader
B. amount of influence a leader has over variables such as hiring, firing, and salaries
C. level of morale and satisfaction of the employees
D. ability and willingness of the followers to accomplish a task
E. all of the above
35) Hersey and Blanchard's leadership theory differs from other leadership theories primarily because it __________.
A. focuses on the followers
B. holds that leadership style should be dependent on the situation
C. explores the role of the expectations of the leader for the follower
D. deals strictly and exclusively with contingencies
E. is normative
36) Hersey and Blanchard say that the laissez-faire leadership style should be used when employees are __________ to accomplish a task.
A. unable and willing
B. able and unwilling
C. unable and unwilling
D. able and willing
E. none of these
37) Phrases such as "more cultural diversity," "many new entrants with inadequate skills," and "increase in aging workers" are all examples of what force for change?
A. World politics
B. Nature of the work force
C. Technology
D. Competition
E. Social trends
38) An example of change in the nature of the work force is an increase in
__________.
A. mergers and consolidations
B. college attendance
C. capital equipment
D. more cultural diversity
E. divorce rates
39) Change activities that are __________ and goal-oriented are termed planned
change.
A. discretionary
B. intentional
C. random
D. restorative
E. reflexive
40) Which tactic for overcoming resistance to change basically assumes that the source of resistance lies in misinformation?
A. Facilitation and support
B. Training and development
C. Education and communication
D. Cooptation and manipulation
E. Teaching and advancement
41) Using covert influence to overcome resistance to change is called __________.
A. cooptation
B. negotiation
C. education
D. manipulation
E. coercion
42) If individuals resisting change are included in making change decisions in an attempt to gain their support, this approach is called __________.
A. exploitation
B. cooptation
C. manipulation
D. education
E. coercion
43) For much of the first half of the 20th century, managers viewed work specialization as __________.
A. a frustrating cause of reduced product output
B. a means to encourage employee satisfaction
C. an unending source of increased productivity
D. an effective solution to over-centralization
E. difficult to implement without automation technology
44) Organizational structure has six key elements. Which of the following is not one of these elements?
A. Departmentalization
B. Centralization
C. Work specialization
D. Location of authority
E. Formalization
45) __________ defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated.
A. Work specialization
B. Matrix departmentation
C. Organizational behavior
D. Organizational structure
E. Departmentalization
46) When an organization takes on a life of its own, it can be said that it has__________.
A. developed subcultures
B. become institutionalized
C. become immortal
D. acquired a culture
E. evolved
47) The key characteristic of organizational culture that addresses the degree to which employees are expected to exhibit precision is termed __________.
A. accountability
B. reactivity
C. stability
D. accuracy orientation
E. attention to detail
48) Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?
A. Innovation
B. Outcome orientation
C. Team orientation
D. Attention to detail
E. Formality orientation
49) Leaders achieve goals, and power is __________.
A. usually used by poor leaders
B. a strong influence on leaders' goals
C. a goal in and of itself
D. defined by leaders' hopes and aspirations
E. a means of achieving goals
50) Power does not require goal compatibility, merely __________.
A. communication
B. understanding
C. dependence
D. reliance
E. confidence
51) Which of the following statements is true concerning power?
A. A person can have power over you only if he or she controls something you
desire.
B. To have power, a person must impose their control over others.
C. To be effective, power must be actualized.
D. Trust and mistrust affect the expression of power.
E. Power requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being
led.