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What is the present value at 6% discount of a cash flow at t = 1 of $1,000 followed by three more consecutive cash flows of $2,000 (at t = 2, 3, and 4). Hint: First draw a time diagram, then use the formula for PV of an annuity followed by a single discount to year 0. $5,987 $6,286 $6,600 $6,930 $7,277

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