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Now, can you clearly explain why we wouldn't simply resort to this form of population data? Why get into median and mode?
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Assume that real risk-free rate (r*) = 1.00%; the maturity risk premium is found as MRP = 0.20%×(t - 1), where t = years to maturity; the default risk premium for AT&T bonds is found as DRP = 0.07%×(t - 1); the liquidity ...
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