Interest Rates

1. Which one of the following is the interest rate that the largest commercial banks charge their most creditworthy corporate customers for short-term loans?

A. discount

B. Federal funds

C. prime

D. bid

E. call money

2. Which one of the following terms applies to a rate that serves as an indicator of future trends?

A. bellwether

B. prime

C. call

D. discount

E. nominal

3. Which one of the following rates is the rate that banks charge each other for overnight loans of $1 million or more?

A. institutional

B. financial overnight

C. Federal funds

D. monetary

E. daily

4. Which one of the following rates is the rate a commercial bank must pay the Federal Reserve to borrow reserves overnight?

A. discount

B. Fed funds

C. financial overnight

D. daily

E. institutional

5. Which one of the following rates is used by brokerage firms as the basis for determining margin loan rates?

A. discount

B. Fed funds

C. prime

D. brokerage

E. call money

6. Which one of the following is unsecured debt issued by corporations on a short-term basis?

A. commercial paper

B. interbank offered loan

C. equipment bond

D. collateralized debt

E. banker's acceptance

7. A $100,000 or more term deposit at a bank is called which one of the following?

A. interbank deposit

B. bankers' acceptance

C. collateralized deposit

D. call bond

E. certificate of deposit

8. Which one of the following describes a banker's acceptance?

A. agreement to loan money in exchange for an agreement by the borrower to offer an asset as collateral

B. written agreement to loan funds in the future once the loan terms have been accepted

C. postdated check with payment guaranteed by a bank

D. agreement by a bank to provide short-term funds for the construction phase of a project

E. the sale of a security by a bank accompanied by an agreement to repurchase the security the following day

9. Which one of the following is defined as U.S. dollar-denominated deposits held in a foreign bank?

A. Eurodollars

B. foreign funds

C. certificates of deposits

D. banker's acceptances

E. T-bills

10. Which one of the following abbreviations is the interest rate that international banks charge one another for overnight Eurodollar loans?

A. EIOEL

B. EUDOR

C. LEDOR

D. EDBOR

E. LIBOR

11. Which one of the following is a short-term debt instrument issued by the U.S. Treasury?

A. Freddie Mac

B. Ginnie Mae

C. T-note

D. T-bill

E. T-bond

12. A pure discount security is an interest-bearing asset that pays:

A. interest on a semi-annual basis.

B. interest on an annual basis.

C. a single payment at maturity.

D. no interest.

E. a variable-rate interest.

13. Which one of the following is a basis point?

A. 1 percent

B. 0.1 percent

C. 0.01 percent

D. 0.001 percent

E. 0.0001 percent

14. Which one of the following is the method used to quote interest rates on money market instruments?

A. short basis

B. floating-rate basis

C. call rate method

D. bank discount basis

E. prime rate method

15. The Treasury yield curve is a graph which plots Treasury yields against which one of the following?

A. corporate bond yields

B. Fed funds rate

C. maturities

D. inflation rates

E. S&P 500 yield

16. Which one of the following is defined as the relationship between the interest rate on default-free, pure discount bonds and the time to maturity?

A. discount rate curve

B. Treasury yield curve

C. risk premium structure

D. term structure of interest rates

E. market interest rate curve

17. Pure discount bonds which are created by separating the interest and principal payments from U.S. Treasury bonds are called U.S. Treasury:

A. notes.

B. bills.

C. STRIPS.

D. SWAPS.

E. tax-exempts.

18. Which one of the following rates is the normally quoted rate?

A. nominal

B. deflated

C. inflated

D. real

E. indexed

19. Which one of the following best describes a real interest rate?

A. current rate on a U.S. Treasury bill

B. nominal rate minus the risk-premium on an individual security

C. market return minus the risk-free rate

D. nominal rate minus inflation

E. historical rate rather than a projected rate

20. Which one of the following best describes the Fisher hypothesis?

A. long-term interest rates are based on current inflation rates

B. nominal interest rates are inversely related to real rates

C. interest rates tend to be higher than inflation rates

D. nominal interest rates tend to be relatively constant over time

E. future interest rates must be higher than current interest rates

21. Which one of the following theories states that the term structure of interest rates reveals the financial market's projections of future interest rates?

A. market rate theory

B. market yield theory

C. Fisher hypothesis

D. expectations theory

E. rational rate hypothesis

22. Which one of the following is defined as a forward rate?

A. rate agreed upon today for a long-term loan

B. interest rate quoted today which will apply to all loans made this week

C. interest rate on a loan made today that will vary as the market rate varies

D. interest rate adjusted for the anticipated rate of inflation

E. expected future interest rate implied by current interest rates

23. Which one of the following proposes that lenders must be financially rewarded for loaning funds on a long-term versus a short-term basis?

A. expectations theory

B. forward rate theory

C. market hypothesis

D. maturity preference theory

E. Fisher hypothesis

24. The market segmentation theory states that interest rates on debt vary dependent upon market segments which are segmented based upon which one of the following?

A. time to maturity

B. principal amount

C. use of funds

D. type of lender

E. type of borrower

25. U.S. Treasury bill rates were the highest during which one of the following time periods?

A. 1930-1933

B. 1943-1945

C. 1979-1981

D. 1997-1999

E. 2002-2007

26. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning U.S. Treasury bill rates for the period 1800 - 2010?

A. T-bill rates never exceeded 10 percent.

B. T-bill rates never exceeded T-bond rates.

C. T-bill rates were lower than 1 percent for a period of time.

D. T-bill rates were less volatile than T-bond rates.

E. T-bill rates were the highest during the World War II years of the 1940's.

27. Banks are most apt to quote short-term loan rates as:

A. prime plus a spread.

B. prime plus inflation.

C. prime minus inflation.

D. Federal funds plus prime.

E. prime minus the discount.

28. Which one of the following rates is generally considered the bellwether rate for bank loans to business firms?

A. money market

B. Fed funds

C. discount

D. prime

E. call money

29. City Bank needs a one-day reserve loan of $2.6 million from Country Bank. Which one of the following interest rates will be charged on this loan?

A. money market

B. Federal funds

C. discount

D. prime

E. Treasury bill

30. First Bank needs to borrow money overnight from the Federal Reserve in order to meet its reserve requirements. Which one of the following interest rates will be charged on this loan?

A. money market

B. Federal funds

C. discount

D. prime

E. Treasury

31. Which one of the following actions is the Federal Reserve most likely to take if it is concerned about a slowing economy?

A. lower the tax rate

B. lower the discount rate

C. increase the call rate

D. increase the tax rate

E. increase the discount rate

32. The rate which an investor pays a brokerage firm for a margin loan is based on a negotiated premium which is added to which one of the following rates?

A. prime

B. call

C. discount

D. T-bill

E. Federal funds

33. Assume that a large corporation, such as General Electric, needs money in the short-term. Which one of the following securities is that corporation most likely to issue to meet this need?

A. commercial paper

B. prime rate loan

C. corporate bond

D. secured bill

E. banker's acceptance

34. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning large-denomination certificates of deposit?

A. The security can be sold to another investor.

B. The face amount is equal to $10,000 or more.

C. The security is a bank time deposit.

D. The security is a form of a commercial check.

E. The security is issued by the U.S. Treasury.

35. Which one of the following facilitates international trade?

A. secured bond

B. Treasury security

C. banker's acceptance

D. commercial paper

E. Eurodollar loan

36. You notice that the interest rate on your credit card is set at LIBOR plus 8.9 percent. Given this, the rate you will pay is primarily influenced by the money market rates in which one of the following?

A. Lisbon, Portugal

B. New York, USA

C. Frankfort, Germany

D. London, England

E. Chicago, USA

37. Which one of the following is the largest market in the world for new debt securities with maturities of one year or less?

A. commercial paper

B. U.S. Treasury bill

C. banker's acceptance

D. Eurodollar money market

E. certificates of deposit

38. The overnight repurchase rate is the rate charged on overnight loans which are collateralized by which one of the following securities?

A. Treasury securities

B. Municipal bonds

C. commercial paper

D. banker's acceptances

E. Eurodollar deposits

39. Which one of the following features applies to a U.S. Treasury bill?

A. U.S. agency debt

B. pure discount security

C. taxable at the state level

D. semi-annual interest payments

E. annual interest payments

40. The market rate on a bond fell from 8.76 percent to 8.73 percent. This is a decline of how many basis points?

A. 0.003

B. .0003

C. 0.03

D. 0.3

E. 3

41. Which one of the following is correct when computing the price of a debt security when using a discount yield?

A. The price will exceed the face value.

B. An increase in the discount yield will increase the current price.

C. The current price will decrease as the days to maturity decrease.

D. The computation will be based on a 360-day year.

E. The computation will consider leap years.

42. Which of the following will increase the price of a money market instrument computed using a discount yield?

I. increase in discount yield
II. decrease in discount yield
III. increase in days to maturity
IV. decrease in days to maturity

A. I only

B. I and III only

C. I and IV only

D. II and III only

E. II and IV only

43. Which one of the following is used by Treasury dealers to indicate the price they are willing to pay to purchase a Treasury bill?

A. par rate

B. bid discount

C. face rate

D. asked discount

E. bank discount

44. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning a Treasury bill?

A. The asked discount indicates the amount a bond dealer is willing to pay to purchase a Treasury bill.

B. The asked yield on a Treasury bill is a bond equivalent yield.

C. The asked discount for a Treasury bill is greater than the bid discount.

D. The asked yield for a Treasury bill is computed based on a 360-day year.

E. The bid price on a Treasury bill is computed based on a 365, or 366-day year.

45. The bond equivalent yield adjusts for leap years by using 366 days starting with:

A. January 1 of the leap year and ending with December 31 of the leap year.

B. February 1 of the year prior to the leap year and ending with February 29 of the leap year.

C. March 1 of the year prior to the leap year and ending with February 29 of the leap year.

D. the second quarter of the year prior to the leap year and ending with the first quarter of the leap year.

E. February 1 of the leap year and ending with February 29 of the leap year.

46. Money market rates are generally one or the other of which two rates?

I. bank discount rate
II. bond equivalent rate
III. annual percentage rate
IV. effective annual rate

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. I and IV only

D. II and III only

E. II and IV only

47. Consider a money market instrument with 48 days to maturity and a quoted ask price of 99. Which two of the following statements are correct as they relate to this instrument?

I. The bond equivalent yield is an effective annual rate.
II. The bank discount rate is lower than the bond equivalent yield.
III. The bank discount rate is an effective annual rate.
IV. The bond equivalent yield is lower than the effective annual rate.

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. I and IV only

D. II and III only

E. II and IV only

48. Which two of the following are the largest categories of fixed-income securities in the U.S.?

I. U.S. government debt
II. corporate debt
III. municipal government debt
IV. real estate mortgage debt

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. III and IV only

D. I and IV only

E. II and IV only

49. Which one of the following borrowers will pay the rates depicted on a Treasury yield curve?

A. large corporation

B. municipal government

C. bank's best customers

D. high-risk borrower

E. default-free borrower

50. Which of the following statements are true as applied to U.S. agency debt?

I. It is equally as risky as Treasury debt.
II. It is frequently subject to state taxes.
III. It has the same credit guarantee as U.S. Treasury debt.
IV. It generally has a lower yield than U.S. Treasury debt with the same maturity.

A. II only

B. III only

C. I and III only

D. III and IV only

E. I, III, and IV only

51. Which one of the following applies to "Yankee bonds"?

A. U.S. corporate bonds that are sold internationally

B. U.S. corporate bonds denominated in a foreign currency

C. U.S. government bonds that are sold internationally

D. any bond that is denominated in U.S. dollars

E. foreign-issued bonds sold in the U.S.

52. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. The yield curve relates time to maturity to interest rates on zero-coupon bonds.

B. The yield curve is based on Treasury bill yields.

C. The term structure of interest rates is based on default-free, pure discount securities.

D. The term structure of interest rates is based on default-free, coupon bonds.

E. The yield curve ignores default risk while the term structure includes a default risk premium.

53. Treasury STRIPS are:

A. zero-coupon bonds issued by the U.S. Treasury with maturities of one year or less.

B. currently quoted in 32nds of a dollar.

C. zero-coupon securities.

D. a type of mortgage bond.

E. coupon securities created from the interest and principal payments of Treasury bonds.

54. The approximate nominal interest rate is computed as the real rate:

A. minus the risk-free rate.

B. minus the inflation rate.

C. plus the risk-free rate.

D. plus the inflation rate.

E. divided by the inflation rate.

55. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. All real interest rates will be positive as long as the inflation rate is positive.

B. Real rates must exceed inflation rates.

C. Short-term interest rates are affected by future inflation expectations.

D. Treasury bill returns tend to vary in direct relation to inflation rates.

E. The Fisher hypothesis advocates that real interest rates follow inflation rates.

56. Which one of the following debt instruments guarantees investors a positive real rate of return?

A. zero-coupon bond

B. default-free, pure-discount bond

C. T-bill

D. TIPS

E. T-bond

57. Inflation-indexed Treasury securities:

I. adjust the principal amount on an annual basis.
II. are default-free.
III. offer a positive real rate of return.
IV. have a variable coupon rate.

A. II and III only

B. III and IV only

C. I, II, and III only

D. I, II, and IV only

E. I, II, III, and IV

58. Based on expectations theory, the term structure of interest rates will be _____ anytime investors believe that interest rates will be higher in the future than they are today.

A. volatile

B. flat

C. downward sloping

D. upward sloping

E. vertical

59. The variable f1,1 as used in the expectations theory is interpreted as the forward rate for one year:

A. based on the prior one-year rate.

B. at 1 percent.

C. based on a 1 percent increase from the current rate.

D. commencing in one year.

E. based on a 1 percent probability of occurrence.

60. According to the expectations theory and the Fisher hypothesis, a downward-sloping term structure is indicative of which of the following based on market expectations?

I. nominal interest rates are expected to increase
II. nominal interest rates are expected to decline
III. inflation rates are expected to increase
IV. inflation rates are expected to decrease

A. I only

B. II only

C. IV only

D. I and III only

E. II and IV only

61. Which of the following statements are true?

I. Lenders have a preference for shorter maturities.
II. Lenders have a preference for longer maturities.
III. Borrowers have a preference for shorter maturities.
IV. Borrowers have a preference for longer maturities.

A. I only

B. I and III only

C. I and IV only

D. II and III only

E. II and IV only

62. Based solely on the maturity preference theory, long-term interest rates:

A. should equal short-term rates.

B. are unrelated to short-term rates.

C. may be higher than or lower than short-term rates.

D. should be lower than short-term rates.

E. should be higher than short-term rates.

63. Which one of the following statements concerning the modern fixed-income market is correct?

A. Pension funds generally have a preference for short maturities.

B. Current maturity preference theory states that both borrowers and lenders prefer short maturities.

C. Market segmentation theory does little to explain the modern fixed-income market.

D. The major borrower in the modern market borrows primarily on a long-term basis.

E. Institutional investors tend to invest in only one maturity range.

64. Which of the following comprise the nominal interest rate on default-free securities according to the modern view of the term structure of interest rates?

I. liquidity premium
II. real rate
III. interest rate risk premium
IV. inflation premium

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. III and IV only

D. II, III, and IV only

E. I, II, III, and IV

65. Modern term structure theory supports the contention that the term structure of interest rates will:

A. be upward sloping.

B. be downward sloping.

C. be upward sloping in the short-term and relatively flat in the long-term.

D. be constant over time.

E. change over time.

66. You want to purchase a security that will pay you $1,000 seven years from now. If you want to earn an annual nominal rate of 6.5 percent, how much should you pay for this investment today?

A. $627.41

B. $630.17

C. $641.41

D. $643.51

E. $662.01

67. You invest $3,600 today at a nominal annual rate of 5.5 percent. This investment will pay one payment five years from now. What will be the amount of that payment?

A. $2,754.48

B. $2,906.16

C. $4,705.06

D. $4,818.09

E. $5,018.62

68. An investment will make one payment of $22,500 nine years from now. What is the current value of this investment if the nominal rate of return is 4.8 percent?

A. $11,980.86

B. $12,124.29

C. $12,390.08

D. $13,515.46

E. $14,754.72

69. A $1,000 face value, 120-day bond is quoted at a bank discount yield of 3.38 percent. What is the current bond price?

A. $957.60

B. $960.09

C. $974.18

D. $982.02

E. $988.73

70. A bond has a face value of $30,000 and matures in 62 days. What is the bank discount yield if the bond is currently selling for $29,750?

A. 4.67 percent

B. 4.84 percent

C. 5.48 percent

D. 5.78 percent

E. 6.03 percent

71. A $5,000 face value bond is quoted at a bank discount yield of 2.8 percent. What is the current value of the bond if it matures in 36 days?

A. $4,972

B. $4,978

C. $4,982

D. $4,986

E. $4,991

72. A $40,000 face value bond matures in 64 days and has a bank discount yield of 4.5 percent. What is the current value of the bond?

A. $39,392.19

B. $39,473.14

C. $39,486.47

D. $39,575.39

E. $39,680.00

73. A Treasury bill has 21 days to maturity and a bank discount yield of 1.89 percent. What is the bond equivalent yield?

A. 1.89 percent

B. 1.90 percent

C. 1.92 percent

D. 1.94 percent

E. 1.96 percent

74. A Treasury bill is quoted at a bank discount yield of 1.21 percent and has 15 days to maturity. What is the bond equivalent yield given that this is a leap year?

A. 1.16 percent

B. 1.18 percent

C. 1.20 percent

D. 1.22 percent

E. 1.23 percent

75. What is the bond equivalent yield on a 30-day Treasury bill that has a bank discount yield of 2.01 percent?

A. 1.97 percent

B. 1.99 percent

C. 2.02 percent

D. 2.04 percent

E. 2.07 percent

76. A Treasury bill has a face value of $250,000, an asked yield of 2.02 percent, and matures in 32 days. What is the price of this bill?

A. $249,397.19

B. $249,408.08

C. $249,511.11

D. $249,670.22

E. $249,717.08

77. A Treasury bill has a face value of $100,000, a price of $99,797.12, and matures in 35 days. What is the asked yield?

A. 1.98 percent

B. 2.12 percent

C. 2.28 percent

D. 3.67 percent

E. 3.74 percent

78. A Treasury bill has a face value of $75,000, an asked yield of 3.05 percent, and matures in 35 days. What is the price of this bill?

A. $74,687.14

B. $74,777.60

C. $74,819.80

D. $74,868.00

E. $74,878.42

79. Your credit card has an annual percentage rate of 18.9 percent and compounds interest daily. What is the effective annual rate?

A. 19.47 percent

B. 19.58 percent

C. 19.82 percent

D. 19.94 percent

E. 20.80 percent

80. A Treasury bill matures in 68 days and has a bond equivalent yield of 4.05 percent. What is the effective annual rate?

A. 4.12 percent

B. 4.14 percent

C. 4.15 percent

D. 4.17 percent

E. 4.18 percent

81. A Treasury bill matures in 81 days and has a bond equivalent yield of 2.79 percent. What is the effective annual rate?

A. 2.79 percent

B. 2.82 percent

C. 2.85 percent

D. 2.88 percent

E. 2.91 percent

82. A Treasury bill has 40 days left to maturity. The bank discount yield on the bill is 3.75 percent. What is the effective annual rate?

A. 3.55 percent

B. 3.66 percent

C. 3.77 percent

D. 3.88 percent

E. 3.99 percent

83. A 90-day Treasury bill has a bank discount yield of 4.2 percent. What is the effective annual rate?

A. 4.22 percent

B. 4.25 percent

C. 4.28 percent

D. 4.32 percent

E. 4.37 percent

84. A $50,000 face value STRIPS is quoted at 94.300. What is the dollar price?

A. $47,067.50

B. $47,150.00

C. $47,215.00

D. $47,277.78

E. $47,350.00

85. What is the current value of a $5,000 face value STRIPS with 6 years to maturity and a yield to maturity of 8.1 percent?

A. $2,998.09

B. $3,009.16

C. $3,105.02

D. $3,128.10

E. $3,133.40

86. A $50,000 face value STRIPS matures in 12 years and has a yield to maturity of 6.50 percent. What is the current dollar price of this security?

A. $21,199.68

B. $23,206.44

C. $25,038.18

D. $26,141.41

E. $28,809.18

87. A $5,000 face value STRIPS matures in 7 years and is currently quoted at a price of 64.238. What is the yield-to-maturity?

A. 3.21 percent

B. 3.38 percent

C. 4.87 percent

D. 6.42 percent

E. 6.76 percent

88. A $20,000 face value STRIPS is currently quoted at 38.642 and has 8 years to maturity. What is the yield-to-maturity?

A. 6.26 percent

B. 6.30 percent

C. 12.25 percent

D. 12.65 percent

E. 12.83 percent

89. A bond has a nominal rate of return of 5.87 percent and the inflation rate is 4.13 percent. What is the approximate real rate?

A. 1.62 percent

B. 1.70 percent

C. 1.74 percent

D. 1.83 percent

E. 1.88 percent

90. You want to earn a real rate of return of 3.64 percent at a time when the inflation rate is 2.84 percent. What is the approximate nominal rate which you must earn?

A. 6.48 percent

B. 6.66 percent

C. 6.68 percent

D. 6.74 percent

E. 6.81 percent

91. The one-year interest rate is 4.80 percent and the two-year interest rate is 5.13 percent. What is the one year interest rate one year from now? Assume the rates are effective annual rates.

A. 5.02 percent

B. 5.23 percent

C. 5.46 percent

D. 5.51 percent

E. 5.74 percent

92. What is the one year interest rate one year from now if the current one-year interest rate is 2.55 percent and the two-year interest rate is 3.15 percent? Assume the rates are effective annual rates.

A. 3.62 percent

B. 3.67 percent

C. 3.71 percent

D. 3.75 percent

E. 3.88 percent

93. A one-year STRIPS sells at an interest rate of 3.54 percent and a two-year STRIPS sells at an interest rate of 3.49 percent. What is the implied one year forward rate? Assume the rates are effective annual rates.

A. 3.44 percent

B. 3.50 percent

C. 3.54 percent

D. 3.57 percent

E. 3.60 percent

94. A two-year STRIPS sells at an interest rate of 3.84 percent and a three-year STRIPS sells at a rate of 3.97 percent. What is the implied one year interest rate two years from now? Assume the rates are effective annual rates.

A. 4.23 percent

B. 4.36 percent

C. 4.41 percent

D. 4.45 percent

E. 4.50 percent

95. The following premiums apply to a 3-month bond: interest rate risk premium = 0.2 percent; real return = 1.9 percent; default premium = 0.8 percent; inflation premium = 1.4 percent. What is the expected nominal interest rate on a default-free security that has 3 months to maturity?

A. 1.9 percent

B. 2.0 percent

C. 2.1 percent

D. 3.3 percent

E. 3.6 percent

96. The following premiums apply to a 8-month bond: interest rate risk premium = 0.32 percent; liquidity premium = 0.44 percent; default premium = 1.23 percent; inflation premium = 3.12 percent; real rate = 3.20 percent. What is the expected nominal interest rate on a 8-month risky security given these values?

A. 5.85 percent

B. 6.45 percent

C. 7.55 percent

D. 8.31 percent

E. 9.30 percent

97. The following premiums apply to a 6-month bond: interest rate risk premium = 0.22 percent; real rate = 3.50 percent; default premium = 0.12 percent; inflation premium = 1.45 percent. What is the expected difference in nominal interest rates between a 6-month risky security and a 6-month, default-free security?

A. 0.12 percent

B. 0.34 percent

C. 0.37 percent

D. 1.57 percent

E. 1.60 percent

Essay Questions

98. Identify and describe five interest rates that directly apply to the money market.

99. Write a short paragraph comparing a bank discount rate to a bond equivalent rate.

100. Identify and describe four of the six components of nominal interest rates as supported by modern term structure theory.