An article in The Economist compares divorce procedures in New York to those in England, France and Germany.
Suppose the following data are available for these places on numbers of divorces, broken down by whether a prenuptial agreement had been signed.
Prenuptial agreement: New York 8,049 England 17,139 France 3,044 Germany 1,014
No prenuptial agreement: New York 75,113 England 25,108 France 19,800 Germany 161131
In light of these data, are the percentages of divorcing couples with prenuptial agreements equal in these four places?