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If the value of the financial sector is in terms of reducing the individual risk in the economy, how could you measure the value of the financial sector without using information on loan payments (broadly construed to include any interest payment necessary to measure an interest rate)? If we think of the amount of individual risk remaining after individuals buy portfolios is a measure of the ineffectiveness of the financial sector [or its imperfections], what do you think accounts for these imperfections?

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Financial Management, Finance

Category:- Financial Management
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