Historically foreclosure was a last resort for individuals that own homes. However, in some states people can voluntarily give up their home to their mortgage lender and escape from any further potential liability to continue to pay the mortgage. This in particular is common in situations where the home is worth significantly less than what is remaining on the mortgage. Should this be allowed or should people still have to pay the difference between what their lender is able to get for the home if they foreclose on it and what was remaining on the mortgage? Clearly state your opinion one way or the other in your paper and state why you feel that way.

Support your argument in your paper by finding two outside references that relate to this issue.