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For this questions, please read the following case study and then respond to the questions noted below.

Mr. EBR is a 74-year-old retired Hispanic gentleman with known coronary artery disease (CAD), who presents to your clinic with substernal chest pain for the past 3 months. It is not positional; it reliably occurs with exertion, approximately one to two times daily, and is relieved with rest, or one or two sublingual nitroglycerin (NTG) tabs. It is similar in quality, but is much less severe, than the chest pain that occurred with his previous inferior myocardial infarction (MI) 3 years ago. Until the past 3 months, he has felt well.

The chest pain is accompanied by diaphoresis and nausea, but no shortness of breath (SOB) or palpitations. He does not vomit. He denies orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND), syncope, presyncope, dizziness, lightheadedness, and symptoms of stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA). An echocardiogram done after his MI demonstrated a preserved left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF). Other medical problems include well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM), well-controlled hypertension (HTN), and hyperlipidemia, with low-density lipoprotein (LDL) at goal. He also has stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD) and diabetic neuropathy. He no longer smokes and does not use alcohol or recreational drugs. His daily medications include: Atenolol 25 mg PO bid, Lisinopril 20 mg PO bid, aspirin 81 mg PO daily, Simvastatin 80 mg PO each evening, and metformin 500 mg PO bid.

Mr. EBR's physical examination includes the following: height 68 inches, weight 185 lb, Blood pressure (BP) 126/78, heart rate (HR) 64, Respiratory rate (RR) 16, and temperature 98.6°F orally. He is alert and oriented, and in no apparent distress (NAD). His neck is without jugular venous distention (JVD) or carotid bruits. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Cardiovascular:normal S1 & S2, RRR, without rubs, murmurs or gallops. Abdomen has active bowel tones and is soft, nontender, and nondistended (NTND). Extremities are without clubbing, cyanosis, or edema. Distal pedal pulses are 2+ bilaterally

What would you add to the current treatment plan? Why?

Would you discontinue any of the currently prescribed medication? Why or why not?

How does the diagnosis stage 3 chronic kidney disease affect your choices?

Why is the patient prescribed more than one antihypertensive?

What is the benefit of the aspirin therapy in this patient?

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