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According to the CAPM formula, a zero-beta asset should have the same expected rate of return as the risk-free rate.

Can a zero-beta asset still have a positive standard deviation?

Does it make sense that such a risky asset would not offer a higher rate of return than a risk-free asset in a world in which investors are risk averse?

Financial Management, Finance

  • Category:- Financial Management
  • Reference No.:- M91991253

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