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A random sample of the number of games played by individual NBA scoring leaders is shown below. Is there sufficient evidence to conclude that the variance in games played differs from 40 at α = .05? Assume, of course, that the variable is normally distributed. (Hint: is this a one- or two-tailed test?) Use the P-value method. 72 79 80 74 82 79 82 78 60 75

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