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Many years ago, the U.S. Government investigated Amway because its products are not sold in stores but rather are sold by individual salespeople. The government claimed that Amway prices were higher because (1) they cannot be purchased in regular grocery or hardware stores and (2) the presence of salespeople creates another "layer" that simply adds on the price. Was the government's argument correct, economically speaking? Why or why not?

Microeconomics, Economics

  • Category:- Microeconomics
  • Reference No.:- M9687978

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