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Two firms have identical cost curves, but firm A is a price taker while firm B is a price searcher. Is it possible that the two firms could find themselves at the same wealth maximizing output? (Assume that firm B is NOT able to engage in any form of price discrimination.) If so, explain the specific circumstances under which this would occur; if not, prove it.

Business Economics, Economics

  • Category:- Business Economics
  • Reference No.:- M92189734

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