Q1: If a petrochemical firm that used oil as feedstock merged with an oil producer that had large oil reserves and a drilling subsidiary, this would be a vertical merger. (True or false)

Q2: Leveraged buyouts (LBOs) occur when a firm's managers, generally backed by private equity groups, try to gain control of a publicly owned company by buying shares in the company using large amounts of borrowed money. (T or F)

Q3:Discounted cash flow methods are not appropriate for evaluating mergers because the cash flows are uncertain and the discount rate can only be determined after the merger is consummated.

Q4:The distribution of synergistic gains between the stockholders of two merged firms is almost always based strictly on their respective market values before the announcement of the merger.

Q5:In a merger with true synergies, the post-merger value exceeds the sum of the separate companies' pre-merger values.

Q6: A congeneric merger is one where the merging firms operate in related businesses but do not necessarily produce the same products or have a producer-supplier relationship.

Q7: A joint venture is one in which two, or sometimes more, independent companies agree to combine resources in order to achieve a specific objective, usually limited in scope.

Q8: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. If interest rates increase, a 10-year zero coupon bond's price will drop by a greater percentage than will a 10-year, 8% coupon bond.
b. One nice thing about zero coupon bonds is that individual investors do not have to pay any taxes on a zero coupon bond until it matures, even if they are not holding the bonds as part of a tax-deferred account.
c. If a bond with a sinking fund provision has a yield to maturity greater than its coupon rate, the issuing company would prefer to comply with the sinking fund by calling the bonds in at par rather than buying the bonds back in the open market.
d. Because of the IRS's tax treatment of zero coupon bonds, pension funds and other tax-exempt entities rarely, if ever, invest in zero coupon bonds.

Q9: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. All else equal, a bond that has a coupon rate of 10% will sell at a discount if the required return for bonds of similar risk is 8%.
b. The total return on a bond during a given year is based only on the coupon interest payments received.
c. When large firms are in financial distress, they are almost always liquidated, whereas smaller firms are generally reorganized.
d. For a given firm, its debentures are likely to have a lower yield to maturity than its mortgage bonds.
e. The price of a discount bond will increase over time, assuming that the bond's yield to maturity remains constant.

Q10:Eakins Inc.'s common stock currently sells for $45.00 per share, the company expects to earn $2.75 per share during the current year, its expected payout ratio is 70%, and its expected constant growth rate is 6.00%. New stock can be sold to the public at the current price, but a flotation cost of 8% would be incurred. By how much would the cost of new stock exceed the cost of retained earnings?
a. 0.09%
b. 0.19%
c. 0.37%
d. 0.56%
e. 0.84%

Q11: An increase in the firm's WACC will decrease projects' NPVs, which could change the accept/reject decision for any potential project. However, such a change would have no impact on projects' IRRs. Therefore, the accept/reject decision under the IRR method is independent of the cost of capital.(T OR F)

Q12:Atlas Anglers Inc. is considering issuing a 15-year convertible bond that will be priced at its $1,000 par value. The bonds have a 6.5% annual coupon rate, and each bond can be converted into 20 shares of common stock. The stock currently sells at $30 a share, has an expected dividend in the coming year of $3, and has an expected constant growth rate of 5.5%. What is the estimated floor price of the convertible at the end of Year 3 if the required rate of return on a similar straight-debt issue is 9.5%?

Q13:Corporations that invest surplus funds in floating-rate preferred stock benefit from getting a relatively stable price, and they also benefit from the 70% tax exemption on preferred dividends received. (T OR F)

Q14: Carolina Trucking Company (CTC) is evaluating a potential lease for a truck with a 4-year life that costs $40,000 and falls into the MACRS 3-year class. If the firm borrows and buys the truck, the loan rate would be 9%, and the loan would be amortized over the truck's 4-year life. The loan payments would be made at the end of each year. The truck will be used for 4 years, at the end of which time it will be sold at an estimated residual value of $12,000. If CTC buys the truck, it would purchase a maintenance contract that costs $1,500 per year, payable at the end of each year. The lease terms, which include maintenance, call for a $10,000 lease payment (4 payments total) at the beginning of each year. CTC's tax rate is 35%. What is the net advantage to leasing? (Note: MACRS rates for Years 1 to 4 are 0.33, 0.45, 0.15, and 0.07.)
a. $642
b. $609
c. $751

d. $678

e. $715

Q15:Gekko Properties is considering purchasing Teldar Properties. Gekko's analysts project that the merger will result in incremental after-tax cash flows of $2 million, $4 million, $5 million, and $10 million over the next four years. The horizon value of the firm's operations, as of Year 4, is expected to be $107 million. Assume all cash flows occur at the end of the year. The acquisition would be made immediately, if it is undertaken. Teldar's post-merger beta is estimated to be 2.0, and its post-merger tax rate would be 35%. The risk-free rate is 6%, and the market risk premium is 5.5%. What is the value of Teldar to Gekko Properties?
a. $70,190,364
b. $73,699,883
c. $81,254,121
d. $66,680,846
e. $77,384,877

Q16:The rate used to discount projected merger cash flows should be the overall cost of capital of the new consolidated firm because it incorporates the actual capital structure of the new firm

True or false

Q17:Since the primary rationale for any operating merger is synergy, in planning such mergers the development of accurate pro forma cash flows is the single most important task.

True or false