Problem: Suppose that you or your family owns, free and clear (without debt) a piece of land. Does a right to property permit you, morally speaking, to do anything you please with it, and are laws that say otherwise immoral? Some philosophers argue that what it means to say it is your property is largely a matter of what the law says you can and cannot do with it. What would Locke say, and do you agree with him? In your response, which will clarify your conception of what property is, consider right-of-way laws that allow the government to purchase your land at market value in order to construct a road or railway path, environmental laws for bidding pollution of the land, limitations on the height of buildings on the land, etc. Provide support for your position.