Let's say, country A and country B both consume and produce only food and clothing. Both countries use only labor to produce these two products. A worker in country A can produce 6 units of clothing or 10 units of food each day while a worker in country B can produce 4 units of clothing or 8 units of food.
Would opportunity cost of food production in country A/B be the same? Or would opportunity cost of food production in country A be greater than that of country B. What would be the formula...