1. A nurse sustains an accidental needle pinprick to the right third finger while administering an injection. If an employee has an occupational exposure, what must happen?

A. An in-service meeting should be held for all employees who may potentially be exposed to the same occupational hazard.

B. The guidelines for OSHA should be included in the employment file.

C. Hospital administrators must maintain the nurse's medical record for the remainder of her employment plus an additional 30
years.

D. The employee should contact the proper authorities.

2. A patient who has paralysis of all four limbs is called

A. quadriplegic.

B. hemiplegic.

C. tetraplegic.

D. paraplegic.

3. Which of the following is the correct definition of negligence?

A. Failure to verify a lab value with the physician

B. Omitting the physician's signature from a document in the medical record

C. Lack of reasonable care

D. Failure to query a diagnosis

4. Which of the following statements is true of the terms of HIPAA?

A. Case managers organize statistical data regarding high-risk surgical procedures performed on each patient.

B. Patients may submit written queries to physicians regarding financial data.

C. Patients have the right to ask for specific information in terms of how their information is being used and disclosed.

D. Physicians may require that patients verify their past medical history.

5. A physician has a meeting with a pharmaceutical sales representative. During the course of the conversation, the physician reveals the diagnosis and past family, medical, and social history of a patient currently being treated with one of the medications that the sales representative is selling. In this situation, the doctor could be sued for

A. malfeasance.

B. invasion of privacy.

C. undue harm and fraud.

D. malice.

6. The HIPAA Privacy Rule indicates that

A. restrictions on information disclosure exist only for patients with life-threatening illnesses.

B. practitioners should disclose only the minimum amount of health information necessary for the purpose of the disclosure.

C. physicians may release medical information at their own discretion.

D. the level of information disclosure permitted is based on the nature of the procedure.

7. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of postnasal drip, frequent nosebleeds, headaches, and difficulty breathing. She is diagnosed with a deviated nasal septum, hypertrophy of the turbinate, and inflammation of the ethmoid sinuses. The physician performs an endoscopic ethmoidectomy of the left nasal sinus, septoplasty, and turbinate excision. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes are assigned?

A. 31230-51, 30520-LT, J34.2

B. 31255, 30520, 30130, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2

C. 31230, 30520, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2

D. 31255-LT, 30520-51, 30130-51, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2

8. An echocardiogram shows that the wall of a patient's artery has dilated. The dilation has resulted in a saclike swelling. This swelling is called a/an

A. cyst.

B. mesenteric venous thrombosis.

C. aneurysm.

D. benign tumor.

9. When is code 58120 assigned?

A. The code is assigned for a patient undergoing dilatation and curettage.

B. The code is assigned for permanent pacemaker insertion.

C. The code has been deleted and cannot be assigned.

D. The code is assigned as an add-on code.

10. Usually, a comprehensive EHR includes

A. customizable XHRLT processes for ambulatory surgery centers.

B. coaxial cable connections between mainframe servers only.

C. secure standalone cluster controllers for hospitals in rural environments.

D. software, hardware, implementation, and future program upgrades.

11. Another name for third-party contractors who have access to medical information is

A. covered entities.

B. business associates.

C. insurance administrators.

D. healthcare vendors.

12. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of nausea, vomiting, fever, dizziness, and intermittent confusion. The physician conducts a detailed history and examination and reviews the patient's lab results. The patient is diagnosed with pyelonephritis and is scheduled for an ultrasound to review the state of the kidneys and other organs. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned?

A. 76775-26, N10

B. 71010-26, B12

C. 73256-TC, M11

D. 76775-TC, N15

13. Which of the following anesthesia modifiers indicates a normal, healthy patient?

A. P3

B. P1

C. P2

D. P4

14. The CPT code for thrombolysis is

A. 93797.

B. 93000.

C. 92975.

D. 92920.

15. A coder would assign a Q code as a temporary code for

A. procedures, services, and supplies.

B. durable medical equipment only.

C. procedures or services only.

D. holistic treatments for spinal procedures.

16. Health care practitioners must maintain records of privacy policy practices and procedures for

A. 2 years.

B. 10 months.

C. 6 years.

D. 20 years.

17. A coder searching for codes pertaining to tissue expanders would find them in what section of CPT?

A. 16200-16799

B. 15000-15999

C. 12000-12300

D. 11960-11971

18. What is the CPT code for simple drainage of a finger abscess?

A. 26020

B. 26010

C. 26034

D. 26011

19. The Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS) pays

A. an established rate for outpatient services in specific hospitals.

B. 65% of the schedule C rate for all surgeries.

C. subsidies to contain health care costs in rural facilities.

D. a percentage of the national average for the same surgery performed in a different geographic location.

20. Providers that receive reimbursement after health care services have been provided are being compensated under the _______ system.

A. retrospective payment

B. UCR

C. prospective payment

D. capitation

21. A patient is diagnosed with severe sepsis and septic shock after experiencing a severe drop in blood pressure. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned?

A. T79.4

B. R65.10

C. T81.12

D. R65.21

22. Which of the following modifiers would be assigned for a moribund patient?

A. P5

B. P1

C. P3

D. P4

23. The prefix endo- means

A. outside of.

B. adjacent to.

C. within.

D. beneath.

24. The voluntary program that's financed through a combination of payments from general federal revenues and premiums paid by beneficiaries who elect to participate is called

A. Medicare Part B.

B. Medicaid.

C. TRICARE.

D. CHAMPVA.

25. What is the CPT code description for 64483?

A. Injection(s) anesthetic agent and/or steroid, transforaminal epidural, with imaging guidance (fluoroscopy or CT); lumbar or sacral, single level

B. Transforaminal epidural injection under ultrasound guidance

C. Injection, anesthetic agent, sphenopalatine ganglion

D. Injection(s) anesthetic agent and/or steroid, transforaminal epidural, with imaging guidance (fluoroscopy or CT); lumbar or
sacral, multiple levels

26. Codes beginning with the letter K are related to the _______ system.

A. endocrine

B. sensory

C. digestive

D. circulatory